If L = x → 0 + lim 1 − cos x x , and L can be represented in the form a , find a .
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x → 0 + lim 1 − cos x x ⋅ 1 + cos x 1 + cos x = x → 0 + lim 1 − cos 2 x x 1 + cos x = x → 0 + lim ∣ sin x ∣ x 1 + cos x We know that x → 0 lim x sin x = 1 and it's fine if it's flipped because the numerator in that key limit is approximately the same as the denominator when x approaches zero. = x → 0 + lim 1 + cos x Substitute in zero. Answer is 2
Nice solution...i like this one..
By the way, L'Hopital's does work if you manipulate the original function. It won't work by application to the original. But it's not necessary here.
i don't think it is a right solution because sin function is with only magnitude
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I don't understand what you're talking about.
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I just want to say that sinx may be +ve or may be -ve
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@Mayank Gupta – Right but in this case, since x approaches positive infinity, we don't have to worry about that. If it were approaching negative infinity, then you'd be correct.
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@Hobart Pao
–
I didn't get how x approaches to positive infinity because according to question x approches to +ve
zero
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@Mayank Gupta – Oops, I mean zero. But it's approaching from the right side, which is positive.
we can easily get our answer using a simple trigonometry identity
⇒ L = x → 0 + lim 1 − cos x x
Put 1 − cos ( x ) = 2 sin 2 2 x
⇒ L = x → 0 + lim 2 sin 2 2 x x
W h e n x → 0 ⇒ sin x → x ( As x is very small )
⇒ L = x → 0 + lim 4 2 x 2 x
⇒ L = x → 0 + lim 2 x 2 x , x 2 = x ( As x is positive )
⇒ L = 2
Thanks for your solution! However, there's actually a really easy way to solve this limit. I'll post my friend's solution.
L = x → 0 + lim 1 − cos x x = x → 0 + lim 1 − 1 + 2 ! x 2 − 4 ! x 4 + ⋯ x = x → 0 + lim 2 ! 1 − 4 ! x 2 + 6 ! x 4 − ⋯ 1 = 2 By Maclaurin series Divide up and down by x
Therefore, a = 2 .
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using expansion cos(x) = 1-(x^2)/2!+(x^4)/4!-.....so on 1-cos(x)=(x^2)/2!-(x^4)/4!+....so on then just take x^2 common from all terms and apply limit