There are two line segments (each of length 1 ) in the x y -plane.
The first segment begins at the origin ( 0 , 0 ) , and makes an angle of θ 1 with the x -axis (the horizontal).
The second segment begins where the first segment ends, and makes an angle of θ 2 with the horizontal.
If θ 1 and θ 2 can both vary over the range [ 0 , 2 π ) , determine (to 3 decimal places) the maximum area that can be bounded by the two segments, the x -axis, and the line x = cos θ 1 + cos θ 2 .
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I had been pondering about what might happen if the number of segments went to infinity (with each segment getting proportionally shorter). I guess we'd have a quarter circle then. Simpler approach than mine, for sure.
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Well, to be fair, my solution does not prove that a regular octagon indeed has the maximum area. It takes a little more effort to get there.
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What is this "little more effort"? What are the steps necessary to have a complete solution?
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@Pi Han Goh – Look up the literature on the "Isoperimetric Problem". For example, see The Isoperimetric Problem , which treats this subject and shows that the regular n-polygon has the maximum possible area. This topic has extensive applicability in mathematics which even extends to theoretical physics.
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@Michael Mendrin – Hmmm, if I recall correctly, your original comment was much longer (with some wikipedia link), and I was planning to read it later tonight. I guessed you've shortened (for whatever reason). Either way, you have my gratitude. I'll have a look at this isoperimetric problem thing some time this weekend.
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@Pi Han Goh – This paper is actually better than the Wikipedia on "Isoperimetric Inequality" in that it does explain how it works in the case of polygons, and more thoroughly than the incomplete proof I gave.
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@Michael Mendrin – I've added a proof for the final step of "What 8-sided polygon of all equal edge length has the maximum area?" It didn't require the full machinery of the general problem, and I think it's instructive / informational to learn from the steps taken.
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@Calvin Lin – Thanks Calvin. I still don't think I'm making the best use of my time in helping Brilliant, as I keep getting too distracted with other problems that often seems to go nowhere. I'm like the guy at the dinner conversation that suddenly finishes a thought on a subject that everyone has already passed on.
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@Michael Mendrin – Well, we're reviewing this problem with the goal of featuring it eventually. It is important to have good solutions that explain the crux to others, which is why we're working on cleaning up the presentation and rigor.
Had you not submitted your solution, we would likely have dismissed this as a "convoluted two variable calculus (with incomplete calculations)" and hence not chosen to feature this. You've contributed greatly to the featuring process :)
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@Calvin Lin – In that case, let me have a closer look at your suggested proof. Let me see what I can do this afternoon.
The area in question can be expressed as the sum of areas of two right triangles and a rectangle.
We know that the area of a right triangle is 2 1 × base × height , and the area of the rectangle is the product of its width and length.
Let
S
θ
1
θ
2
denote the area in question with parameters
0
≤
θ
1
,
θ
2
≤
2
π
. Then,
S θ 1 , θ 2 = = ( 2 1 × sin θ 1 cos θ 1 ) + ( 2 1 × sin θ 2 cos θ 2 ) + ( × sin θ 1 cos θ 2 ) 4 1 [ sin ( 2 θ 1 ) + sin ( 2 θ 2 ) ] + sin θ 1 cos θ 2
Since the area function S θ 1 , θ 2 is a continuous function on a compact space, then the global maximum of this area function is either achieved at its turning point in the interior or else on the boundary.
The boundary of S θ 1 , θ 2 is either S 0 , π / 2 = 0 or S π / 2 , 0 = 1 .
Now let's find the turning point of this area function!
We have
\dfrac{\partial S}{\partial \theta_1} = \dfrac12 \cos(2\theta_1) + \dfrac12 \cos\theta_1 \cos \theta_2 = 0 \qquad \qquad \tag1
and
\dfrac{\partial S}{\partial \theta_2} = \dfrac12 \cos(2\theta_2) - \dfrac12 \sin\theta_1 \sin \theta_2 = 0\qquad \qquad \tag2
Adding these two equations gives 2 1 [ cos ( 2 θ 1 ) + cos ( 2 θ 2 ) + cos ( θ 1 + θ 2 ) ] = 0 .
Using the compound angle formula , cos ( A ± B ) = cos A cos B ∓ sin A sin B , the equation above can be simplified to 2\cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2)\cos(\theta_1 - \theta_2) + \cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2) = 0 \quad \Leftrightarrow \quad \cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2) \, [ 2 \cos(\theta_1 - \theta_2) + 1 ] = 0.
By zero product property , we have cos ( θ 1 + θ 2 ) = 0 and/or cos ( θ 1 − θ 2 ) = − 2 1 under the restriction 0 ≤ θ 1 + θ 2 ≤ π and ∣ θ 1 − θ 2 ∣ ≤ 2 π . But cos ( θ 1 − θ 2 ) = − 2 1 cannot hold true. Thus, cos ( θ 1 + θ 2 ) = 0 ⇒ θ 2 = 2 π − θ 1 only. Substituting this back into our area function gives
S θ 1 , θ 2 = S θ 1 = 2 1 sin ( 2 θ 1 ) + sin 2 θ 1 = sin θ 1 cos θ 1 + sin 2 θ 1 .
A simple differentiation shows that S ′ = 0 ⇒ θ 1 = 8 3 π , θ 2 = 8 π ⇒ S 3 π / 8 , π / 8 = 2 1 ( 2 + 1 ) .
Our answer is max ( S 0 , π / 2 , S π / 2 , 0 , S 3 π / 8 , π / 8 ) = 2 1 ( 2 + 1 ) ≈ 1 . 2 0 7 .
Here's a brute calculus approach. See the solution by @Michael Mendrin for a nice geometrical interpretation of the problem. There are essentially two parts to the brute calculus approach:
1) Take partial derivatives of the area expression with respect to
θ
1
and
θ
2
and set them to zero (this is standard).
2) Solve the resulting nonlinear system using multivariate Newton Raphson iteration
The derivation is given below. The iterative algorithm converges on θ 1 = 6 7 . 5 d e g and θ 2 = 2 2 . 5 d e g . The resulting area is approximately 1.207. This result can also be verified again using brute search, with nested loops incrementing θ 1 and θ 2 .
The equations ∂ θ 1 ∂ A = ∂ θ 2 ∂ A = 0 can be solved exactly (writing the equations in terms of θ 1 ± θ 2 ) to give θ 1 = 8 3 π and θ 2 = 8 1 π , which makes the maximum area 2 1 ( 2 + 1 ) .
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In general, while that is a necessary condition for a maximum, it is not a sufficient condition, even if we consider the 2nd derivatives in each variable.
As an example, consider A = ( x 2 + y 2 ) cos ( 4 tan − 1 x y ) which has polar form r 2 cos 4 θ . On the x (resp y) axis, we have cos 4 θ = 1 and so the graph looks like r 2 × 1 = x 2 + 0 2 (resp r 2 = 0 2 + y 2 ) which satisfies ∂ x ∂ A = 0 , ∂ x 2 ∂ 2 A > 0 . However, on the lines of x = y and x = − y , we have cos 4 θ = − 1 and thus the function looks like r 2 × ( − 1 ) = − ( x 2 + y 2 ) .
This is why we have to use the Jacobian / Hessian for completeness.
I love how unintuitive this is to those who've only dealt with single variable calculus, and this is a counter example that people can get towards (at least in the pictorial/descriptive form). I've posted a problem to reflect this .
In this case, we can argue that "in the compact interval [ 0 , π / 2 ] × [ 0 , π / 2 ] , a maximum exists. Since this is the unique point that satisfies the necessary conditions (including the second derivative) for having a maximum, thus it is indeed a maximum.
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The equations I wrote down (and observed that an exact solution could be found) are for the location of the stationary point, and have nothing to do with classifying it.
If you read my comment to Pi Han just below, you will note that I have already recommended the use of the Hessian matrix, as well as observations about the use of the fact that the maximum on the boundary is 1 , which is smaller than the value at the stationary point.
For that matter, there are functions for which the Hessian matrix alone is insufficient to classify the stationary point. Consider x 3 − y 3 at the origin. The Hessian matrix is identically zero at that point.
Don't you have to prove that you've found the maximum area?
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If you wanted to be perfectly rigorous, yes. As you mentioned before, that's the problem with the differentiation approach. Is there an equivalent of the 2nd derivative test when your parameter space is 2D?
Look at the Hessian matrix, and consider its eigenvalues...
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Several issues:
[1] Isn't there an easier (or more natural) way to prove its maximality? Like say,
We can choose the "boundary conditions" whereby the two unit side lengths are perpendicular to each other, so the area at this boundary condition is either 0 or 1. Either way, they are less than the maximum value of 2 1 ( 2 + 1 ) ≈ 1 . 2 0 7 . So this means that the extrema point that we've found at θ 1 = 8 3 π , θ 2 = 8 π is a global maximum. QED.
Doesn't this work as well?
[2] I also see that (in the original write-up), Mark and Steven (and possibly even you) has omitted the proof of the maximality. Is it wrong (or frowned upon) to be rigorous in scenarios like these? Or in other words, when don't we need to be rigorous when solving for optimization problems?
[3] Steven's solution doesn't technically prove that the max solution occurs exactly at the point ( θ 1 , θ 2 ) = ( 8 3 π , 8 π ) right? It just hinted that the extremal point is roughly at that point right? That's the best conclusion right? Okay. Just confirming.
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@Pi Han Goh – Of course, since we can show that the maximum area achievable on the boundary of the region 0 ≤ θ 1 ≤ 2 1 π , 0 ≤ θ 2 ≤ 2 1 π is 1 , which is less than the area obtainable at the turning point, then the TP must give the true maximum (since the global maximum, which must exist since the area function is a continuous function on a compact set, is either achieved at a TP in the interior or else on the boundary).
I did not put in the details, but the conditions for a turning point can be solved exactly (as my comment indicated). Use compound angle formulae and the factor formulae. Steven's answer only shows that the TP occurs near those values of θ 1 , θ 2 ; algebra can show it exactly.
I did not publish a solution, merely pointed out that an exact answer was possible. Had I written it out, I would have made enough comments to ensure that the TP was a maximum.
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@Mark Hennings – You're the best!!!
@Mark Hennings – I also relied on an "argument from beauty" (again not rigorous). Intuitively, it seems that the default starting value should be 45 degrees for both angles, which is the classic optimal angle for trajectories and such. After iteration, the answers came out to be very nearly 67.5 degrees and 22.5 degrees, which are 1.5 and 0.5 times the default angle, respectively (very nice multiples). And their sum is the same as twice the default angle. Such a result was "obviously" too beautiful to be wrong. And it was a non-trivial solution which yielded a bigger area than the default case. Combining that with the result of another search algorithm essentially removed all doubt for me. Not perfect, but easily good enough to wager on.
Although I don't think perfect rigor is even possible with an iterative approach anyway. It sounds like @Mark Hennings has an exact solution. But then we'd again have to see if something like a 2nd derivative test is feasible.
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Suppose we find angles θ 1 and θ 2 such that the area bounded by the perpendicular sides have the maximum area. Then we reflect about the x-axis and the line x = cos θ 1 + cos θ 1 to form an 8-sided polygon.
What 8-sided polygon of all equal edge length has the maximum area? The regular octagon, which, for an edge length of 1 , has an area of 2 ( 1 + 2 ) , and so from there we have 1 . 2 0 7 . . . as the answer for this problem.
Let's prove that of all 8-sided polygons of side length 1, the regular octagon maximizes the area.
Proof: Label the vertices V 1 , V 2 , … , V 8 in order.
If the polygon is not convex, we can easily "stretch" it out to get a larger area. Hence, we may assume that the polygon is convex.
Consider the line V 1 V 5 . If the areas V 1 V 2 V 3 V 4 V 5 and V 5 V 6 V 7 V 8 V 1 are not the same, then we can just reflect one across the other to get a larger area. Hence, we may assume that the areas are the same (though we do not know if they are symmetric).
Let's focus on the V 1 V 2 V 3 V 4 V 5 half. For any vertex V 2 , V 3 , V 4 , if the triangle V 1 V i V 5 is not a right angle at V i , then we can expand the area by making V 1 V i V 5 a right triangle, while keeping everything else the same. This shows that ∠ V 1 V i V 5 = 9 0 ∘ , and thus all of these points lie on the same (semi)circle.
Another proof: Pick any three consecutive vertices, e.g. V 3 , V 4 , V 5 , and one more elsewhere, e.g. V 7 . While keeping other vertices fixed relative to diagonals V 3 V 7 and V 5 V 7 , we can adjust the four vertices V 3 , V 4 , V 5 V 7 until they form a cyclic quadrilateral with maximum area. Thus, unless any four vertices of a n-gon chosen in this manner form cyclic quadrilaterals, it will always be possible to increase the area of the n-gon with fixed side lengths. Since any three consecutive vertices define an unique circumcircle, and because the choice of the 4 th vertex is arbitrary, all of the vertices must lie on the same common circumcircle.
Oddly enough, though, it takes more work to prove that a quadrilateral with fixed side lengths has maximum area only if it's cyclic. I'll get back to this later if there's a non-calculus proof.
Edit: See Bretschneider's formula for a non-calculus proof. The area is maximum when the quadrilateral is cyclic. However, the derivation is complicated.