Probability of AP

Out of 10001 tickets numbered consecutively, 3 are drawn at random .

Find the chance that the numbers on them are in Arithmetic Progression .

The answer is of the form l k \frac{l}{k} .

Find k l k - l where k k and l l are co-prime integers.

HINT : You might consider solving for 2 n + 1 2n + 1 tickets .

You can try more of my Questions here .


The answer is 33328333.

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4 solutions

Akshay Bodhare
Feb 3, 2015

Suppose there are ( 2 n + 1 ) (2n+1) tickets.

then,The Total number of elements in sample space is ( ( 2 n + 1 ) 3 ) {(2n+1) \choose 3}

Now,we have to select any two numbers.the third will be the average of those two.

Now the restriction is that the mean of those two numbers should be an integer. Therefore we select two odd numbers or two even numbers.

This can be done in ( n 2 ) + ( n + 1 2 ) {n \choose 2}+{n+1 \choose 2} ways.

therfore,answer is ( n 2 ) + ( n + 1 2 ) ( ( 2 n + 1 ) 3 ) \frac {{n \choose 2}+{n+1 \choose 2}}{{(2n+1) \choose 3}}

That's an interesting approach Akshay Bodhare !! upvoted .

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Thanks but it only works for a special case of choosing three elements.

Akshay Bodhare - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Oh, I see .

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 4 months ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member So, how's your JEE prep going on ?

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 4 months ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member I am getting good marks in exams.Seeing that my target was originally top 10000 two years before,and i am getting too good ranks compared to that,I keep on watching anime all day.Just studying for boards.

Akshay Bodhare - 6 years, 4 months ago

Me done exactly the same......but final answer got wrong!!

Ravi Dwivedi - 5 years, 11 months ago
Satyen Nabar
Jan 26, 2015

The tickets are numbered as 1, 2, 3, .... (2n-1), n, (2n+1).

Number of ways to draw 3 tickets at random is (2n+1) C3.

Numbers that are in AP---

1) when common difference d=1, there are (2n-1) groups of 3 numbers each, which are in AP. (1,2,3), (2,3,4)...... {(2n-1), n, (2n+1)}

2) When difference d =2, we have (2n-3) groups in AP such as (1,3,5), (2,4,6)... {(2n-3),(2n-1), (2n+1)}

3)When d=3, we have (2n-5) groups..... and so on...

4) when d = n-1, we have 3 groups.

5) when d = n we have 1 group. {1, (n+1), (2n+1)}

Thus total number of groups which are in AP are in the form

1+3+ 5+..... (2n-5) + (2n-3) + (2n-1) which is itself an AP with first term 1 and common difference d= 2.

This sums up to n^2.

Required Probability = n^2 / (2n+1)C3

= 3n / (4n^2)-1

Nice solution

Bhargav Upadhyay - 6 years, 3 months ago

Sorry I am busy at the moment . But I'll just post the general from for 2 n + 1 2n+1 tickets .

P = 3 n 4 n 2 1 \dfrac{3n}{4n^{2} - 1 }

Now just put n = 5000 n=5000 .

I got the same general formula, but when I plug in n = 5000 n = 5000 and reduce the fraction I get l = 5000 l = 5000 and k = 33333333 k = 33333333 , which gives k l = 33328333 k - l = 33328333 . I think you may have put one too many 3 3 's at the end of your answer. Would it be faster if I disputed the problem to get Calvin's attention, or would it be better to just repost the question? @Azhaghu Roopesh M

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 4 months ago
Andrea Virgillito
May 13, 2017

When we have 2n+1 tickets the number of triplets of tickets which satisfy the asked property is n 2 n^2 it's easly demonstrable. Then we just have to divide n^2 for ( 2 n + 1 3 ) \binom{2n+1}{3}

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