An angle θ is chosen randomly in the interval [ 0 , 2 π ) , and its corresponding point on the unit circle is plotted. Let this point be P . Now let A = ( 1 , 0 ) and B = ( − 1 , 0 ) .
Let the expected value of P A + P B − 2 be E .
What is ⌊ 1 0 0 0 E ⌋ ?
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How many points are there between x and x+dx?(here theta)
@Anup Navin
The notation d x means taking the limit as d x approaches 0. So as d x approaches 0, x + d x approaches x and so, taking the limit, we find something very interesting.
Even as d x becomes smaller and smaller, there are still an infinite number of points between x and x + d x . However, when d x = 0 , we find no points between x and x + d x . So what is the number of points between x and x + d x ? Is this question very well-defined?
so, assuming that the probability that the point is chosen between x and x+dx is still an approximation?
The point P is going to be located at ( cos θ , sin θ ) . By appling the distance formula to both points, we find this. P A + P B = ( 1 − cos θ ) 2 + sin 2 θ + ( − 1 − cos θ ) 2 + sin 2 θ = 1 − 2 cos θ + cos 2 θ + sin 2 θ + 1 + 2 cos θ + cos 2 θ + sin 2 θ = 2 − 2 cos θ + 2 + 2 cos θ Now we have to find the average value of this as theta ranges from 0 to 2 π . Start by simplifying the integral a little bit. 2 π 1 ∫ 0 2 π 2 − 2 cos θ + 2 + 2 cos θ d θ = 2 π 2 ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ + 1 + cos θ d θ = 2 π 2 ( ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ d θ + ∫ 0 2 π 1 + cos θ d θ ) Those integrals aren't going to be easy to solve directly, so simplify the radicals to something we can make a u -substitution out of.
1 − cos θ = 1 + cos θ 1 − cos 2 θ = 1 + cos θ ∣ sin θ ∣
1 + cos θ = 1 − cos θ 1 − cos 2 θ = 1 − cos θ ∣ sin θ ∣
To avoid dealing with improper integrals, you can say that ∫ 0 2 π 1 ± cos θ ∣ sin θ ∣ d θ = ∫ 0 2 π 1 ± cos θ 4 sin θ d θ
2 π 2 ( ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ d θ + ∫ 0 2 π 1 + cos θ d θ ) = π 2 2 ( ∫ 0 2 π 1 + cos θ sin θ d θ + ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ sin θ d θ )
Let's solve these integrals one at a time.
∫ 0 2 π 1 + cos θ sin θ d θ = ∫ 2 1 u − d u = ∫ 1 2 u d u = 2 u ∣ ∣ 1 2 = 2 2 − 2 ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ sin θ d θ = ∫ 0 1 u d u = 2 u ∣ ∣ 0 1 = 2 Summing these together, we see this. ∫ 0 2 π 1 + cos θ sin θ d θ + ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ sin θ d θ = 2 2 − 2 + 2 = 2 2
Remembering the scalar from earlier, we find this. π 2 2 ( ∫ 0 2 π 1 + cos θ sin θ d θ + ∫ 0 2 π 1 − cos θ sin θ d θ ) = π 2 2 × 2 2 = π 8
The expected value for P A + P B is π 8 ≈ 2 . 5 4 6 4 7 … , so E ≈ 0 . 5 4 6 4 7 … and ⌊ 1 0 0 0 E ⌋ = 5 4 6
There isn't a need to use the distance formula. The lengths are obvious from the sketch. It can be seen that ∠ P A B = π / 2 − θ / 2 . Since Δ P A B is a right angled triangle, P A = 2 ∣ sin ( θ / 2 ) ∣ . Similarly, P B = 2 ∣ cos ( θ / 2 ) ∣ .
Excellent.
Another path you can take after arriving at 1 + cos θ and 1 − cos θ is using the reverse half-angle identity to get 1 + cos θ = 2 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ cos ( 2 θ ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ and 1 − cos θ = 2 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ sin ( 2 θ ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ .
We can also get rid of the absolute value signs by noting that we just need to take the integral from 0 to π because of symmetry, which forces cos ( 2 θ ) and sin ( 2 θ ) to both be positive.
You also typoed in your 4th to last equation: it should be 2 2 − 2 , not 2 2 − 1 .
You can restrict the integration still further because there is symmetry between placing the point P in the first or second quadrant; so you can just integrate from 0 to 2 π and skip the absolute value brackets entirely. Also, as long as you're going to use the half-angle trigonometric terms, you can write their sum as 2 sin 2 θ + 2 cos 2 θ = 2 2 ( 2 2 sin 2 θ + 2 2 cos 2 θ ) = 2 2 [ sin 2 θ cos ( 4 π ) + cos 2 θ sin ( 4 π ) ] = 2 2 sin ( 2 θ + 4 π ) [which uses the "angle-addition" formulas]. This simplifies the integrand considerably.
are you sure it REQUIRES calculus?
Seeing it requires you to find the average value of a continuous curve, I'd say yes. @Trevor B. knows more about this than me, I'm still a noob. What do you say?
I believe it does, but do you have a non-calculus solution?
@Trevor B. – no i suck at math idk any calculus so i was just wondering
I must say that taking the modulus value is absolute necessary. First time I solved it, I did not take modulus and got the expected value as zero!
For any conic including circle PA+PB is always constant ...... Then what is the need of using integration ?
No, that would be true if A and B were the foci. Wht you are thinking of are the foci of an ellipse. Additionally, in a circle, the only thing constant is A P 2 + B P 2 .
Thanks I forgot it
Search wolframalpha for the following query have the answer presented to you-- floor(1000*(integrate 2abs(sin(x/2))+2abs(cos(x/2))-2 from 0 to 2pi)/(2pi))
actually wat is integration
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The point can be taken as cos θ , sin θ
PA + PB = ( 1 − cos θ ) 2 + sin 2 θ + ( 1 + cos θ ) 2 + sin 2 θ = 2 − 2 cos θ + 2 + 2 cos θ
= 2 ( ∣ sin 2 θ ∣ + ∣ cos 2 θ ∣ )
The probability that the point is chosen between θ , and θ + d θ is 2 π d θ
Hence, expected value of P A + P B − 2 is 2 π ∫ 0 2 π 2 ( ∣ sin 2 θ ∣ + ∣ cos 2 θ ∣ − 1 ) d θ = π 8 − 2
Hence, our answer is ⌊ 1 0 0 0 ( π 8 − 2 ) ⌋ = 5 4 6