Let G n be the expected value of the geometric mean of n real numbers independently and randomly chosen between 0 and 1.
What is n → ∞ lim G n ?
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Same solution ! I first thought to use Excel to approximate the result, but I end up by first finding n=2 case,then I found that it is easily extended to infinity.
For n -> inf one of the number will be zero. So the product will be null and the mean also.
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The probability of selecting 0 for any given variable is in fact 0. This conclusion makes the erroneous assumption that infinity*0 > 0.
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In fact the probability is 0 for any number, but if randomic take infinity times, for sure it will be chosen. Try in the computer.
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@Osvaldo Guimarães – You'll find that computers are notoriously unreliable when dealing with notions of infinity or infinitesimals. There's a limit to the accuracy of floating point numbers that will cause a computer to report an infinitesimally small number as being equal to 0, which is not the case. In this example, let's say we have 100 random numbers from 0 to 1 whose product winds up being 1 0 − 1 0 0 0 . You'll find that Python returns this number as 0.0. You'll also find that it returns ( 1 0 − 1 0 0 0 ) 1 / 1 0 0 as 1.0. Clearly these are incorrect.
Consider also this (non-rigorous) argument, which may convince you that you cannot assume the product is 0: the real numbers between 0 and 1 inclusive are uncountably infinite, while the number of variables in our product is countably infinite. As the cardinality of an uncountably infinite set is strictly larger than the cardinality of a countably infinite set, it cannot be said with certainty that any particular real number must be chosen. The only reliable approach to such a problem is the use of continuous probability distributions.
@Osvaldo Guimarães – How about we just talking in such Mathematical way to solve this?
That was my assumption also. That for an infinite set of random values between 0 and 1, that a single 0 will mean that the geometric mean is zero as well.
Same solution here! :D
I had no idea how to solve this. I gave a shot at 1/e. Sorry folks... :)
what lucky guy
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Same for me :) in fact i guessed it should be linked with e because of the kind of infinite product and 1/n exponent... And as it was obviously between 0 and 1 i tried 1/e !
I wonder what fraction of the people who got this right simply guessed 1/e. I know I'm in the same boat as you.
Let a k be random numbers uniformly distributed between 0 and 1. Then:
lim n → ∞ n a 1 a 2 . . . a n = exp ( n 1 ∑ n = 1 ∞ lo g ( a n ) )
Then from Monte Carlo integration it follows that:
n 1 ∑ n = 1 ∞ lo g ( a n ) = ∫ 0 1 lo g ( x ) d x = lo g ( 1 ) − 1 = − 1
And so finally
n a 1 a 2 . . . a n = exp ( − 1 )
Using logs and rules of indices you get
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by finding the (arithmetic) average of lo g ( G ) via rules of indices, it should follow that you can exponentiate it and the geometric average of G
the arithmetic mean of a function over a range can be attained by integrating it over the range and dividing it by the length of the range (which happens to be 1) lo g ( G ) ˉ = ∫ 0 1 lo g ( x ) . d x = a → 0 lim [ x ( l o g ( x ) − 1 ) ] a 1 = a → 0 lim ( − 1 − a ( lo g ( a ) − 1 ) ) = − 1
if we exponentiate − 1 we get e 1
If numbers are picked randomly between 0 and 1, then those numbers are in the form 1/n, 2/n, ... n/n. If we do the GM of this sequence we obtain (n!/n^n)^(1/n) = (n!)^(1/n)/n. By Stirling then n! ~ k sqrt(n) (n/e) so taking the limit as n-> + infty we get 1/n..
I've done it the same way.
YfWrp Vlrd
My approach, as engineer by the trade, is a kind of heterodox .
You can consider the natural logarithm of geometrical mean as`equivalent to the edge of of an hyper-cube which volume equal to the product of the N values to be considered.
So by taking logarithm at both sides of the geometrical mean formula we have Ln ( Gm) = [ Ln (x1)+Ln(x2)+...Ln(xN) ] / N. Being infinite and equally probable all values x(j) between 0 and the numerator of quantity under bracket is precisely the area of function Ln(x) between 0 and 1 which values -1. N = 1 since is the interval between [0,1].
Therefore Ln(Gm) = -1, then Gm = 1/e
The x's are chosen independently from a uniform distribution. G = n x 1 x 2 . . . x n G = x 1 n 1 x 2 n 1 . . . x n n 1 E [ G ] = ( E [ x 1 n 1 ] ) n E [ x 1 n 1 ] = b − a 1 a ∫ b x 1 n 1 d x 1 E [ x 1 n 1 ] = 1 − 0 1 0 ∫ 1 x 1 n 1 d x 1 E [ x 1 n 1 ] = n + 1 n x 1 n n + 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 1 E [ x 1 n 1 ] = n + 1 n E [ G ] = ( n + 1 n ) n = ( n n + 1 ) − n = ( ( 1 + n 1 ) n ) − 1 n → ∞ lim E [ G ] = n → ∞ lim ( ( 1 + n 1 ) n ) − 1 = e − 1
It is possible to write G n as
G n = e n 1 ∑ i = 1 n lo g ( a i ) = e E ( lo g ( X n ) )
where X n is the uniform discrete random variable in ]0;1[ and E denote the mean(expected value) of the random variable X n .
To calculate lim n → + ∞ G n it is sufficient to calculate the mean of the continuos random variable log(X), because for n → + ∞ the discrete uniform random variable X n tends to continuos uniform random variable X
Let Y = lo g ( X ) , then it is possible to calculate the probability density function(pdf) f Y of Y know the pdf of X variable f X with the following formula ( random variables )
f Y ( Y ) = f X ( Y ) d Y d X
the calculation give
f Y ( Y ) = e Y with Y ∈ ] − ∞ ; 0 [
Then the Y is a random variable with exponetial distribution and E [ Y ] = E [ lo g ( X ) ] = − 1 . substituting we obtain the desidered result
lim n → + ∞ G n = lim n → + ∞ e E ( lo g ( X n ) ) = e E ( lo g ( X ) ) = e E ( Y ) = e − 1 ≈ 0.367879........
Mathematica : GeometricMean[Table[RandomReal[],10^6]]
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For n randomly chosen numbers a 1 , a 2 , . . . , a n , the expected value can be found by integrating the geometric mean function over every 0 to 1 interval:
∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 . . . ∫ 0 1 n a 1 a 2 . . . a n d a 1 d a 2 . . . d a n
Each integral provides a factor of n + 1 n , giving the total integral of ( n + 1 n ) n .
Now we can evaluate the limit as n approaches infinity; manipulating the expression, we get:
lim n → ∞ ( n n + 1 ) − n = lim n → ∞ ( ( 1 + n 1 ) n ) − 1 = e − 1 ≈ 0 . 3 6 7 8 7 9