k are there such that F k is of the form 2 n ?
How many values ofNote that both k and n are non-negative integers.
Also F 0 = 0 , F 1 = 1 and F m = F m − 1 + F m − 2
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Can you explain why the greatest power of 2 is 8 ?
I was inspired to make this problem when I stumbled across this paper .
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I linked it. Didn't you see?
Some parts of the paper went over my head. I've really got to pick up on number theory. But I skimmed through the paper and it seems very interesting.
It's definitely very exciting to say with certainty that only so and so many powers of 2 exist in an infinite sequence!
Let k = 6 l . We get that F l and F 3 l are also of the form 2 n . Because 2 ∣ F l if and only if 3 ∣ l , 9 ∣ 3 l , so F 9 = 3 4 is also of the form 2 n . Contradict
I used Carmichael's theorem to find the number of solutions. I would love to see a direct approach for the problem.
Carmichael's theorem: For n greater than 1 2 , the n th Fibonacci number F n has at least one prime divisor that does not divide any earlier Fibonacci number.
There is an approach that uses a less high-power theorem.
Hint: F m ∣ F n ⇔ m ∣ n
@Calvin Lin Can you please elaborate ?? I couldn't get you!!
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Assuming that theorem is true,
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Although I couldn't reduce k exactly in the form 6 m , but something similar to it.
Like clearly as you said 6 ∣ k . So let k = 6 n .
If 2 ∣ n ⇒ 4 ∣ 6 n ⇒ F 4 ∣ F 6 n ⇒ F 4 = 2 a . But this is not true .
If 3 ∣ n ⇒ 9 ∣ 6 n ⇒ F 9 ∣ F 6 n ⇒ F 9 = 2 a . But this is not true .
If 5 ∣ n ⇒ 5 ∣ 6 n ⇒ F 5 ∣ F 6 n ⇒ F 5 = 2 a . But this is not true .
If p : p r i m e , p > 6 , p ∣ n ⇒ p ∣ 6 n ⇒ F p ∣ F 6 n ⇒ F p = 2 a ⇒ 6 ∣ p . But this is not true.
∴ n = 1 ⇒ k = 6 is the only possibility.
Please give suggestions and tell me whether I am right or not..!!
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@Ankit Kumar Jain – @Calvin Lin
I just got another idea , I could have even directly used the fact that F 2 , F 3 are powers to 2 , and using a similar analysis I could have reached the result.
Am I right enough?
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I got the result that the greatest Fibonacci number that's a power of 2 is 8 from here . So that leaves F 1 = F 2 = 1 = 2 0 ; F 3 = 2 1 and F 6 = 8 = 2 3 .
That means exactly four powers of 2 in an infinite sequence! Wow!