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i wont use this method but i wont help from u =1/2 + 2/4+ 3/8 + 4/16+..................
then = 1+lim (n+2)/(8n) n >>infinty = 1+1/8 whats my rong in thise method
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n → ∞ lim 8 n n + 2 = 8 3 + 1 6 4 + 3 2 5 + . . .
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may be its the the last of this series i mean the last of this series is 1/8
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@Patience Patience – n → ∞ lim 2 n n = 0 .
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@Chew-Seong Cheong – ok u true but i am serach new method lim (n+2)/(8n) n >>infinty i mean the last of seriese and the first is 3/8 ok there rong ok sum (a+b)= sum a+sum b
This is a well-known result due to Nicole Oresme n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n n = 2 Proof: Consider the function f ( z ) = 1 − z 1 The power series expansion of f ( z ) is f ( z ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ z n Now take the derivative of f , which is f ′ ( z ) = ( 1 − z ) 2 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n z n − 1 Multiplying by z z f ′ ( z ) = ( 1 − z ) 2 z = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n z n ( 1 ) Substituting z = 1 / 2 in (1) n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n n = ( 1 − 2 1 ) 2 2 1 = 2 ( Q . E . D )
Using sum of infinite terms of AGP.
⇒ 2 1 + 4 2 + 8 3 + . . .
2 1 ( 1 + 2 1 + 4 2 + . . . )
Now, a = 1 , r = 2 1 and d = 1 .
2 1 ( 1 − 2 1 1 + ( 1 − 2 1 ) 2 1 × 2 1 )
2 1 ( 2 + 2 1 × 4 )
2 1 × 4 = 2
Did the same way (+1). :)
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Consider the Maclaurin series of an infinite geometric progression.
n = 0 ∑ ∞ x n n = 1 ∑ ∞ n x n − 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n x n n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n n = 1 − x 1 Differentiate both sides with respect to x = ( 1 − x ) 2 1 Multiply both sides by x = ( 1 − x ) 2 x Put x = 2 1 = ( 1 − 2 1 ) 2 2 1 = 2