∫ − 1 1 1 − x 2 ( x 4 + a x 3 + b x 2 + c x + d ) 2 d x
Let a , b , c , and d be real constants.
Find the value of a + b + c + d such that the integral above is minimized.
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thank you very much(+1)... I'm bussy right now, but later I'll see your solution slowly... I didn't have on mind this method... Interesting.
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Sure , HAve a look when u r free and then give me feedback :)
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ok, I'll do it, notice that using Chebyshev polynomial, we make the change cos θ = x .It will be on my proof... For this reason, I find your proof interesting... Anyway, my proof will be very long...It will take me some time..
ok, I have a first doubt, it is I = 2 J 8 + ( 2 a 2 + 4 b ) J 6 + . . . ?, why use Beta for evaluating J n ,(ok, forget this) Suggestion: Prove this exercise , but my doubt is where is 2 J 8 later in the following line? Anyway, the idea and solution (in general ) seems quite right and you get the objetive. The rest is similar a Pi Han Gogh's solution on my previous problem...
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@Guillermo Templado – See the only reason I referred Beta since I didnt find a link on brilliant where tose integrals where in their simple product form i.e. J n = n n − 1 n − 2 n − 3 ⋯ 2 1 2 π for even 'n' . So i referred to Beta
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@Aditya Narayan Sharma – Ah,ok, I knew this formula... and where is 2 J 8 in te following line? I don't see it.. haha..
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@Guillermo Templado – Actually in the next line everything is evaluated and simplified. That's y
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@Aditya Narayan Sharma – Ok, at your orders, I will see the proof again, this time carefully... But I reserve my opinions for myself
@Aditya Narayan Sharma – I now see it, your proof is perfect. Thank you very much, again.
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@Guillermo Templado – Thhank you very much :) you can have a look on my new problem of discrete mathematics.
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@Aditya Narayan Sharma – Sure, give me some time. I have reposted it... I have so many things to do...
@Aditya Narayan Sharma – Your problem has been modified. Please, don't tell me the solution... I have some doubts... The 4th points says: 4.- Every door numbered X has behind it an amount equal to X in each of the three buildings. Is it an amount equal to X or equal to X ... Other doubt: After repeating the process of opening and closing doors finally some doors remained open while some remained closed. The money collected from A(first building), B(second building) & C(third building) are kept aside in three bags. What money is collected? It is the money behind open doors, isn't it? And finally? Example : If the last door that remained open in A is 100th one while there are 150 doors. So D 1 = 1 0 0 ... or D 1 = 1 0 1 ? I don't understand it, very good... I know, for example, if A has 100 doors, at the end of the procedure the open doors are 1, 4, 9, 16, ..., 100. Don't tell me the solution, please. This problem seems more a number theory problem than a discrete theory problem? I'm asking myself why?... Please, I only need understand the 4th point.... and the example...
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@Guillermo Templado – Ok as per your doubts I'm coming one by one,
1) Yes every door has an amount X behind it if it is numbered 'X'. Ex : Door 9 would have rupees 3 behind it.
2) Yes it is the money collected from open doors. After the process is over there are certain number of doors open in each of the three buildings. The total amount collected from the open doors from 'A' will be recognised as the money collected from 'A' and similarly for 'B','C' .
3) D 1 is the last door that remained opened in 'A' . As you stated my problem statement does not necessarily imply that 1,4,9,.. are the doors which remained open after the process, But it states that the last door that remained open is a perfect square and it is D 1 .
If there are 150 doors or 1000 , it doesnt matter , if the door that remained open is 1 0 0 so D 1 will be equal to 100.
Yes I had a great struggle to set up the wordings of this problem as there was a lot to explain.
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@Aditya Narayan Sharma – Oh, thank you very much, now I understand the problem, I think very soon I'll be able to solve it... Sorry, yesterday I was teaching to read music to a "gypsy" family. In Spain, we love spanish guitar. I play classic spanish guitar... Well, the father of this family plays guitar very good, but he plays " flamenco" spanish guitar, but he doesn't know to read music... It's incredible...
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@Guillermo Templado – I also love music but sadly neither do i know how to read nor to play :( except for listening. Actually clasical music is greatly appreciated in india. But the advent of rape songs and others, they appear to me as entertaining stories rather than music.
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@Aditya Narayan Sharma – you're confused. Flamenco is an art very little known and very, very difficult to play
@Aditya Narayan Sharma – Look, listen to this, most people think that to play a guitar the left hand is harder to handle than the right hand. Wrong, right hand is more difficult to handle ... I'll leave you three songs: The first is a beautiful classic song Asturias . The second is an "ugly" flamenco song. However, the second song is much harder to play... In this case, it's played by Sabicas, the best guitar player I have ever met. If you look at the nail on his thumb, this nail is stuck with glue, yes, with glue ... One of the various things that his right hand does is the "tremolo". La Malagueña The tremolo is a technique of playing the guitar that uses the four fingers: thumb, index, middle(heart) and ring finger. Let's say that with these four fingers makes about 16 beats per second, ie 48 beats every 3 seconds.What is harder to play? without any doubt La Malagueña... Here is another beautiful classic song using the tremolo Recuerdos de la Alhambra
I look at 2I and the last term should be 2d^2\pi. One d^2 from each of the integrals.
The Chebyshev polynomials (of the first kind) T n ( x ) = cos ( n cos − 1 x ) are such that ∫ − 1 1 1 − x 2 T m ( x ) T n ( x ) d x = ⎩ ⎨ ⎧ 0 2 1 π π m = n m = n > 0 m = n = 0 and standard inner-product space theory tells us that ∫ − 1 1 [ x 4 − p ( x ) ] 2 d x p ( x ) a cubic polynomial is minimized when p ( x ) = α T 3 ( x ) + β T 2 ( x ) + γ T 1 ( x ) + δ T 0 ( x ) where α β γ δ = = = = π 2 ∫ − 1 1 x 4 T 3 ( x ) d x = 0 π 2 ∫ − 1 1 x 4 T 2 ( x ) d x = 2 1 π 2 ∫ − 1 1 x 4 T 1 ( x ) d x = 0 π 1 ∫ − 1 1 x 4 T 0 ( x ) d x = 8 3 so that p ( x ) = 8 3 + 2 1 ( 2 x 2 − 1 ) = x 2 − 8 1 and hence a 1 x 3 + b 1 x 2 + c 1 x + d 1 = − p ( x ) = 8 1 − x 2 so that a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 = − 8 7 = − 0 . 8 7 5 .
Since the (suitably normalized) Chebyshev polynomials are what are obtained by applying the Gram-Schmidt orthogonalisation procedure to the sequence
1
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x
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2
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, with respect to the inner product
⟨
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=
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f
(
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g
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we see that
q
(
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+
b
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x
2
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c
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∥
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0
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−
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and so
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is the fourth Chebyshev polynomial, scaled so as to become monic.
Like always, excellent, thank you very much!(+1)... I'm going to give a "similar" proof or " very similar", perhaps a little more detailed...
and standard inner-product space theory tells us that ∫ − 1 1 [ x 4 − p ( x ) ] 2 d x p ( x ) a cubic polynomial is minimized when...
Well, here's a question I asked you too often: "What (great linear algebra) book (that you strongly recommend) do I need to know about all these fancy stuffs?"
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Hmm. This is not fancy stuff, I am afraid. Any book on Linear Algebra that covers Inner Product Spaces will show the details of Gram-Schmidt orthogonalisation and the like.
If V is an inner product space and e 1 , e 2 , … , e n is an orthonormal sequence with respect to the inner product, then it is easy to show that (for any v ∈ V ) ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ v − j = 1 ∑ n a j e j ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ 2 = ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ v − j = 1 ∑ n α j e j ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ ∥ 2 + j = 1 ∑ n ∣ a j − α j ∣ 2 for any constants a 1 , a 2 , … , a n , where α j = ⟨ v , e j ⟩ 1 ≤ j ≤ n Just expand both sides of this equation. For a particular choice of vector space and inner product, that is the statement you highlighted, given that the vector space spanned by 1 , x , x 2 , x 3 is the same as the space spanned by T 0 , T 1 , T 2 , T 3 , namely the space of cubic polynomials.
I'm going to develope my proof in brief(it's theory of Numerical Analysis)... I'm sure you'll like my proof, but it's a continuation of the theory of my previous problem. Furthemore, I'll add more theory for solving very interesting problems. For example, if C ( [ a , b ] ) = { f : [ a , b ] → R ; f is a continuous function } and we define ∀ f ∈ C ( [ a , b ] ) , ∣ ∣ f ∣ ∣ ∞ = supremum { ∣ f ( x ) ∣ ; x ∈ [ a , b ] } = maximum { ∣ f ( x ) ∣ ; x ∈ [ a , b ] } due to Weierstrass theorem, and p ( x ) is a monic polynomial of n- degree. Find the q ( x ) monic polynomial of n- degree such that ∣ ∣ q ( x ) ∣ ∣ ∞ = minimum ∣ ∣ p ( x ) ∣ ∣ ∞ and give this minimum value...
The solution is got with 8 1 ⋅ T 4 ( x ) = x 4 − x 2 + 1 / 8 where T 4 ( x ) is the polynomial of Chebyshev of 4 t h degree of first kind.
Continuation of the theory of my previous exercise
Legendre polynomials
"Monic Legendre polynomials" are: t 0 ( t ) = 1 t 1 ( t ) = t t 2 ( t ) = t 2 − 1 / 3 t 3 ( t ) = t 3 − ( 3 / 5 ) t t 4 ( t ) = t 4 − ( 6 / 7 ) t 2 + ( 3 / 3 5 ) . . . Does this remember you something?
Proposition 1.-
Let ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ be an inner real product in C ( [ a , b ] ) = { f : [ a , b ] → R ; f is a continuous function } fulfilling ⟨ f , g ⋅ h ⟩ = ⟨ f ⋅ g , h ⟩ ) for all f , g , h ∈ C ( [ a , b ] ) .
Then, the sequence of polynomials defined recursively as follows is orthogonal, (and the polynomials are monic): p n ( x ) = ( x − a n ) ⋅ p n − 1 ( x ) − b n ⋅ p n − 2 ( x ) , ( n ≥ 2 ) with p 0 ( x ) = 1 , p 1 ( x ) = x − a 1 and a n = ⟨ p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ ⟨ x p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ , b n = ⟨ p n − 2 , p n − 2 ⟩ ⟨ x p n − 1 , p n − 2 ⟩ .
Proof.-
By looking at the formulas, it is evident that each polynomial is monic of degree n, and therefore non-zero. Furthemore, the denominators in the formulas are non-zero.
Let's prove by induction that ⟨ p n , p i ⟩ = 0 for i = 0 , 1 , . . . n − 1 .
a) For n = 0 there is nothing to prove.
b) For n = 1 , ⟨ p 1 , p 0 ⟩ = ⟨ ( x − a 1 ) p 0 , p 0 ⟩ = ⟨ x p 0 , p 0 ⟩ − a 1 ⟨ p 0 , p 0 ⟩ = 0 due to the definition of a 1 .
Now suppose the validity of our statement for an index n − 1 , with n ≥ 2 , then ⟨ p n , p n − 1 ⟩ = ⟨ x p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ − a n ⟨ p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ − b n ⟨ p n − 2 , p n − 1 ⟩ = ⟨ x p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ − a n ⟨ p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ = 0 ⟨ p n , p n − 2 ⟩ = ⟨ x p n − 1 , p n − 2 ⟩ − a n ⟨ p n − 1 , p n − 1 ⟩ − b n ⟨ p n − 2 , p n − 2 ⟩ = ⟨ x p n − 1 , p n − 2 ⟩ − b n ⟨ p n − 2 , p n − 2 ⟩ = 0 Now, we are going to use the hypothesis ⟨ f , g ⋅ h ⟩ = ⟨ f ⋅ g , h ⟩ ) for all f , g , h ∈ C ( [ a , b ] ) . For i = 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . , n − 3 , ⟨ p n , p i ⟩ = ⟨ x p n − 1 , p i ⟩ − a n ⟨ p n − 1 , p i ⟩ − b n ⟨ p n − 2 , p i ⟩ = ⟨ p n − 1 , x p i ⟩ = ⟨ p n − 1 , p i + 1 + a i + 1 p i + b i + 1 p i − 1 ⟩ = 0 . For i = 0 we should write x p 0 = p 1 + a 1 p 0 . □ .
Notes before the following key proposition.-
a) If in C ( [ − 1 , 1 ] ) = { f : [ − 1 , 1 ] → R ; f is a continuous function } we use the inner real product ⟨ f , g ⟩ = ∫ − 1 1 f ( x ) ⋅ g ( x ) d x then the orthogonal monic polynomials are Legendre polynomials .
Chebyshev Polynomials
b) If in C ( [ − 1 , 1 ] ) = { f : [ − 1 , 1 ] → R ; f is a continuous function } we use the inner real product ⟨ f , g ⟩ = ∫ − 1 1 1 − x 2 f ( x ) ⋅ g ( x ) d x then Chebyshev polynomials are orthogonal:
Proof.-
Let's make the change x = cos θ ⇒ , ⟨ f , g ⟩ = ∫ 0 π f ( cos θ ) g ( cos θ ) d θ (Chebyshev polynomials of first kind are T n ( x ) = cos ( n ⋅ cos − 1 ( x ) ) and if n = m ), ⟨ T n , T m ⟩ = ∫ 0 π cos ( n θ ) cos ( m θ ) d θ = 2 1 ( ∫ 0 π cos ( ( n + m ) θ ) + cos ( ( n − m ) θ ) d θ ) = 2 1 ( n + m sin ( ( n + m ) θ ) + n − m sin ( ( n − m ) θ ) ) 0 π = 0 , □
Proposition 2.- ( key proposition )
If ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ is an inner product in C ( [ a , b ] ) and p 0 , p 1 , . . . , p n , . . . is a sequence of monic orthogonal polynomials with degree of p i = i , ∀ i = 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . , n , . . . . Then , if q is a monic polynomial of degree n , then ∣ ∣ q ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ ≥ ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ . Furthemore, if other monic polynomial p of degree n , fulfills ∣ ∣ p ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ ≤ ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ , then p = p n
Proof.-
It's clear that Span { p 0 , p 1 , . . . , p n } ⊆ Span { 1 , x , x 2 , . . . x n } . We are going to see that dim ( Span { p 0 , p 1 , . . . , p n } ) = n + 1 and this will imply that Span { p 0 , p 1 , . . . , p n } = Span { 1 , x , x 2 , . . . x n } . For proving this, we are going to see that these monic polynomials are linearly independent. Let's suppose that λ 0 p 0 + λ 1 p 1 + λ 2 p 2 + . . . + λ n p n = 0 ⇒ with λ i constant ∀ i = 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . , n , and for i = 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . , n fixed but arbitrary ⟨ λ 0 p 0 + λ 1 p 1 + λ 2 p 2 + . . . + λ n p n , p i ⟩ = 0 = λ i ⟨ p i , p i ⟩ ⇒ λ i = 0 . Therefore, Span { p 0 , p 1 , . . . , p n } = Span { 1 , x , x 2 , . . . x n } . Hence, q = λ 0 p 0 + λ 1 p 1 + λ 2 p 2 + . . . + λ n p n , ⇒ ⟨ q , p i ⟩ = = λ i ⟨ p i , p i ⟩ ⇒ λ i = ⟨ p i , p i ⟩ ⟨ q , p i ⟩ . Thus, q = i = 0 ∑ n ⟨ p i , p i ⟩ ⟨ q , p i ⟩ ⋅ p i and because of q is a monic polynomial q = p n + i = 0 ∑ n − 1 ⟨ p i , p i ⟩ ⟨ q , p i ⟩ ⋅ p i ⇒ ∣ ∣ q ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ 2 = ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ 2 + i = 0 ∑ n − 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ⟨ p i , p i ⟩ ⟨ q , p i ⟩ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 2 ≥ ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ 2 ⇒ ∣ ∣ q ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ ≥ ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ . Furthemore, if other monic p polynomial of degree n , fulfills ∣ ∣ p ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ ≤ ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ , we have just seen that ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ ≤ ∣ ∣ p ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ and this implies that ∣ ∣ p n ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ = ∣ ∣ p ∣ ∣ ⟨ ⋅ , ⋅ ⟩ but then due to the previous linear combination of q , and using it for p we conclude p = p n □ .
Solution of my previous exercise and this exercise
Using proposition 1 and 2 here, Legendre monic polynomial of degree 3, minimize the integral of my previous exercise.
Using proposition 1 and 2 here,again, Chebyshev polynomial of degree 4 divided by 8 ,minimize the integral of this exercise
Proposition 3.- (Not necssary for this exercise and the previous exercise)
If p is a monic polynomial of degree n in [ − 1 , 1 ] , then ∣ ∣ p ∣ ∣ ∞ ≥ 2 n − 1 1 = ∣ ∣ 2 n − 1 1 ⋅ T n ∣ ∣ ∞ in [-1, 1], whith T n being Chebyshev polynomial of degree n and ∣ ∣ f ∣ ∣ ∞ = supremum { ∣ f ( x ) ∣ ; x ∈ [ − 1 , 1 ] } .
To be continued
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Putting x = sin y gives,
I = ∫ − 2 π 2 π ( sin 4 y + a sin 3 y + b sin 2 y + c sin y + d ) 2 = ∫ − 2 π 2 π ( sin 4 y − a sin 3 y + b sin 2 y − c sin y + d ) 2
Thus, 2 I = ∫ − 2 π 2 π ( sin 4 y + a sin 3 y + b sin 2 y + c sin y + d ) 2 + ∫ − 2 π 2 π ( sin 4 y − a sin 3 y + b sin 2 y − c sin y + d ) 2
After a little simplification we have,
I = 2 J 8 + ( 2 a 2 + 4 b ) J 6 + ( 2 b 2 + 4 d + 4 a c ) J 4 + ( 2 c 2 + 4 b d ) J 2 + π d 2 , where J n = ∫ 0 2 π sin n x d x
Use Beta to evaluate J n ′ s and hence deduce that,
I = 1 2 8 π ( 4 0 a 2 + 4 8 b 2 + 6 4 c 2 + 1 2 8 d 2 + 8 0 b + 9 6 a c + 9 6 d + 1 2 8 b d + 3 5 ) = 1 2 8 π f a , b , c , d which is left to minimize.
By Completing the square , f a , b , c , d = 8 ( a 2 + ( 2 a + 3 c ) 2 − c 2 + b 2 + 5 ( b + 1 ) 2 + 1 6 d 2 + 1 6 b d + 1 2 d − 8 5 ) ≥ 8 ( 1 + 1 6 d 2 − 1 6 d + 1 2 d − 8 5 ) = 8 g d where minimum occurs if a = 0 , 2 a + 3 c = 0 , b + 1 = 0 and putting the value of these we get the last expression in ′ d ′
g d = 8 ( 1 6 d 2 − 4 d + 8 3 ) = 8 ( ( 4 d − 2 1 ) 2 + 8 1 ) ≥ 1 and minimum occurs at d = 8 1
So, I is minimized when ( a , b , c , d ) = ( 0 , − 1 , 0 , 8 1 ) and the answer a + b + c + d = − 0 . 8 7 5