∫ 0 ∞ e x 2 − 1 sin ( x 2 ) x d x
If the integral above can be expressed as A 1 ( π B coth ( π C ) + D ) , where A , B , C , D are all integers, find A + B + C + D .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Hi I'm inviting you to this .
I = ∫ 0 ∞ e x 2 − 1 x sin x 2 d x = 1 / 2 ∫ 0 ∞ e u − 1 sin u d u ( Taking x 2 = u ) = 1 / 2 k ≥ 1 ∑ ∫ 0 ∞ e − k u sin u d u = 2 1 k ≥ 1 ∑ k 2 + 1 1 Now, we use the infinite product formula for sin h x to get sin h π x = π x k ≥ 1 ∏ ( 1 + k 2 x 2 ) ⟹ ln sin h π x = ln ( π x ) + k ≥ 1 ∑ ln ( 1 + k 2 x 2 ) Differentiating with respect to x implies π cot h π x = x 1 + 2 x k ≥ 1 ∑ k 2 + x 2 1 ⟹ 2 1 k ≥ 1 ∑ k 2 + 1 1 = 4 1 ( π cot h π − 1 ) which results in the answer 4 + 1 + 1 − 1 = 5 .
The Function
f
is:
f
(
x
)
=
x
coth
(
x
)
−
1
I'm wondering no one has presented a solution even though it has 7 solvers.I invented this and a similar integral and put it up on MSE. Although I solved this one on my own, but the other one is still unsolved and can be found
here
.( My mse username is kunal)
To begin with the solution, let's consider the following integral:
I
(
a
)
=
∫
0
∞
e
x
2
−
1
sin
(
x
2
)
x
a
d
x
Now, it can be expressed as:
I
(
a
)
=
∫
0
∞
r
=
1
∑
∞
sin
(
x
2
)
x
a
e
−
r
x
2
d
x
Also,
sin
(
x
2
)
=
Im
[
e
i
x
2
]
. Hence,
I
(
a
)
=
Im
⎣
⎡
r
=
1
∑
∞
∫
0
∞
x
a
e
−
x
2
(
r
−
i
)
d
x
⎦
⎤
Note that the summation and the integral can be interchanged because of
Fubini's Theorem
( It can be proved using Dominated Convergence Theorem).
Substituting
x
2
(
r
−
i
)
=
t
I
(
a
)
=
Im
⎣
⎡
r
=
0
∑
∞
∫
0
∞
2
(
r
−
i
)
2
a
+
1
t
2
a
−
1
e
−
t
d
x
⎦
⎤
BY the definition of Gamma Function, we can write it as
I
(
a
)
=
Im
⎣
⎢
⎢
⎡
2
Γ
(
2
a
+
1
)
r
=
1
∑
∞
(
r
−
i
)
2
a
+
1
1
⎦
⎥
⎥
⎤
Writing
(
r
−
i
)
=
r
2
+
1
e
−
i
tan
−
1
(
r
1
)
Our integral now becomes,
I
(
a
)
=
2
Γ
(
2
a
+
1
)
Im
⎣
⎡
r
=
1
∑
∞
(
r
2
+
1
)
4
a
+
1
e
i
2
a
+
1
tan
−
1
(
r
1
)
⎦
⎤
Taking the Imaginary part, we get
I
(
a
)
=
2
Γ
(
2
a
+
1
)
⎣
⎢
⎢
⎡
r
=
1
∑
∞
(
r
2
+
1
)
4
a
+
1
sin
(
2
a
+
1
tan
−
1
(
r
1
)
)
⎦
⎥
⎥
⎤
Plug
a
=
1
to get:
I
(
1
)
=
2
Γ
(
1
)
⎣
⎡
r
=
1
∑
∞
r
2
+
1
1
⎦
⎤
The sum can be evaluated by various methods, including but not limited to Fourier Series, Digamma Functions etc. and comes out to be
r
=
1
∑
∞
r
2
+
1
1
=
2
1
(
π
coth
(
π
)
−
1
)
Making our required integral to be
∫
0
∞
e
x
2
−
1
sin
(
x
2
)
x
d
x
=
4
1
(
π
coth
(
π
)
−
1
)
≈
0
.
5
3
8
3
3
7
0
2
3
7
3
4
verified numerically, which completes the solution.
but how to solve give me a clue ?
@Mark Hennings I was particularly able to solve this case of this generalized integral which I(my other username is kunal) put up on mse! Have you got any insight as the answers I got say that no closed form exists
@Pi Han Goh Please see it and tell of any error( I couldn't get your report) @Kushal Bose Here's the solution
Log in to reply
What is the function of your f ? I got f ( x ) is a constant function, f ( x ) = 0 . 5 3 8 3 3 7 0 2 3 7 3 4 ⋅ 4 .
Log in to reply
as it's obvious, the function can be made up to be x coth ( x ) − 1
Log in to reply
@Kunal Gupta – Why can't f ( x ) = e 2 π − 1 e 2 π ( π − 1 ) + ( π + 1 ) ⇒ ⌊ 1 0 7 ⋅ f ( e ) ⋅ f ( e ) ⌋ = 4 6 3 6 9 0 7 6 ?
Log in to reply
@Pi Han Goh – the question reads f ( π ) not f ( x ) so that makes the function(kind of) variable wrt x . So i replaced π with x to make it a function
Log in to reply
@Kunal Gupta – Okay, why can't f ( x ) = e 2 π − 1 e 2 π ( π − 1 ) + ( π + 1 ) + x 2 − x 2 ⇒ ⌊ 1 0 7 ⋅ f ( e ) ⋅ f ( e ) ⌋ = 4 6 3 6 9 0 7 6 ?
Log in to reply
@Pi Han Goh – haha! I know we can make out infinite number of functions! maybe the problem is wrongly worded but i think you got the crux and are pulling my leg! Can you suggest some edits so that the answer remains same and the problem is legally correct?!
Log in to reply
@Kunal Gupta – How about just asking for the numerical value of this integral instead?
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
∫ 0 ∞ e x 2 − 1 sin ( x 2 ) x d x = 2 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e x − 1 sin x d x =
∫ 0 ∞ n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n − 1 ) ! ( e x − 1 ) x 2 n − 1 ( − 1 ) n + 1 = by expanding the power series for sin
n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n − 1 ) ! ζ ( 2 n ) Γ ( 2 n ) ( − 1 ) n + 1 d x = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n + 1 ζ ( 2 n ) by the relation between zeta and gamma
n = 0 ∑ ∞ ζ ( 2 n ) x 2 n = 2 − x π cot ( x π )
Using x = i and a little adjustment for the power of -1 and ζ ( 0 ) = 2 − 1 :
n = 1 ∑ ∞ ζ ( 2 n ) ( − 1 ) n + 1 = 2 i π cot ( i π ) − 2 1 = 2 1 ( π coth ( π ) − 1 )
Remembering the 1/2 from the u sub, f ( x ) = x coth x − 1