X Y Z plane only in 1st quadrant, such that its magnitude is varying with distance x ( B = B 0 x ) and direction in positive Z -axis.
Let a variable magnetic field exist inNow an α -particle of mass m and charge q enters in this magnetic field at origin with velocity V 0 and direction in positive X -axis.
Then find the radius of curvature of trajectory of particle at the instant when the particle displaced maximum distance in X -direction
Details and assumptions
1) B 0 = 1 . 6 7 × 1 0 − 2 7 T
2) V 0 = 1 . 2 8 × 1 0 − 1 8 m / s
3) m α = 6 . 6 8 × 1 0 − 2 7 K g
4) q α = 3 . 2 × 1 0 − 1 9 C
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Excellent approach...!!
Nice Work... I used Force analysis but your approach is nice...Thanks For Sharing. And I said alpha Particle Foolish Becoz if it had to Come return by travelling some distance then why initially It had Travels in X-direction. I know this is funny but i want to create Series Of question Of This type name so i choose that Title :P
And You May solved my other questions Of this "FOOLISH" Type named. If you NOT solved them previously. I have posted 2 other questions of this Type.
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When i tried force analsys, the resultant differential equation did not seem to have an easy analytical solution, and so i resorted to indirect tricks,, so do post your solution so we can learn how u handled it,, :)
and yes i did solve your foolish proton in cyclotron question
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ya sure i will post it soon... since it takes lot of time..but when i have some time then i post full solution definitely
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@Deepanshu Gupta – dx=(mv cosa da/qBx) Therefore Xdx=mv.cosa da/qB(integrate for a=0to π/2) x²/2= mv/qB X=√(2mv/qB) But i did nt got 2√2, i was getting 0.4(√2)
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@Ace Pilot – Oh. I got it, it was asking for radius and nt max. x Seems i am more foolish than dis alpha particle
U can write force equation and use kinetic energy conservation since magnetic forces do no work. That will give the answer easily
Nice approach! :) I used Force method!
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instead of d(sin (theta) ) he should write (sin d(theta)). should'nt he?
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I too am getting a bit confused in that . Let me think upon it again (later) :)
i know what he did but there is a great confusion in my mind , in eq 1 he wrote (sin d(theta) ) as d(sin theta) but if i take the approximation and write sin d(theta) as just d(theta) the l.h.s would be pi/2 which would be certainly wrong.what do you think @Prakhar Bindal . meanwhile i did it correctly using force method.
i did it using force approach.
Let particle has velocity v and u at any instant. (v along x and u along y)
Writing force equations
-qBxv/m = du/dt = udu/dy
qBxu/m = dv/dt = vdv/dx
Also using energy conservation v^2 + u^2 = (vo)^2
Substitute value of u in first equation and integrate from 0 to x and velocity from (vo) to zero as at maximum x coordinate velocity will be zero. (x velocity obviously)
Now just apply formula of radius of curvature to get required answer
I used the same method bro! :)
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count me in too , i used the same method! ⌣ ¨
I am minority lol.
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The speed of particle remains constant since it is a magnetic field and magnetic field exerts force always along a direction perpendicular to velocity , hence at any instant , The radius of curvature is given by
q B x m v
now,, when it passes through a thin element dx
it deviates by
a small angle d(theta)
given by
d ( s i n ( θ ) ) = R d x
substituting the value of R we get
d ( s i n ( θ ) ) = m v q B x d x .......(1)
Now when it reaches the maximum distance along x-axis, Its velocity has no component along x-axis or it is perpendicular to x-axis ,,
hence ,, from the beggining ,, it has deviated by an angle of 90 degrees
so integrating eqn ... (1) from 0 to pi/2 for RHS and from 0 to 'a' for LHS
We get
1 = 2 m v q B a 2 o r a = q B 2 m v
Now using the formula for R
we get
R = 2 q B m v
which is nothing but
2 2 = 2 . 8 2 8 4 7 1 2 5
and why is the alpha particle foolish ?