Foolish α \alpha Particle in Variable Magnetic Field

Let a variable magnetic field exist in X Y Z XYZ plane only in 1st quadrant, such that its magnitude is varying with distance x x ( B = B 0 x ) (B={ B }_{ 0 }x) and direction in positive Z Z -axis.

Now an α \alpha -particle of mass m m and charge q q enters in this magnetic field at origin with velocity V 0 {V}_{0} and direction in positive X X -axis.

Then find the radius of curvature of trajectory of particle at the instant when the particle displaced maximum distance in X X -direction

Details and assumptions

1) B 0 = 1.67 × 10 27 T { B }_{ 0 }=1.67\times { 10 }^{ -27 }T

2) V 0 = 1.28 × 10 18 m / s { V }_{ 0 }=1.28\times { 10 }^{ -18 }m/s

3) m α = 6.68 × 10 27 K g { m }_{ \alpha }=6.68\times { 10 }^{ -27 }Kg

4) q α = 3.2 × 10 19 C { q }_{ \alpha }=3.2\times { 10 }^{ -19 } C

This is Part of set Foolish Things


The answer is 2.828.

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2 solutions

Mvs Saketh
Sep 21, 2014

The speed of particle remains constant since it is a magnetic field and magnetic field exerts force always along a direction perpendicular to velocity , hence at any instant , The radius of curvature is given by

m v q B x \frac { mv }{ qBx }

now,, when it passes through a thin element dx

it deviates by

a small angle d(theta)

given by

d ( s i n ( θ ) ) = d x R d(sin(\theta ))=\frac { dx }{ R }

substituting the value of R we get

d ( s i n ( θ ) ) = q B x d x m v d(sin(\theta ))=\frac { qBxdx }{ mv } .......(1)

Now when it reaches the maximum distance along x-axis, Its velocity has no component along x-axis or it is perpendicular to x-axis ,,

hence ,, from the beggining ,, it has deviated by an angle of 90 degrees

so integrating eqn ... (1) from 0 to pi/2 for RHS and from 0 to 'a' for LHS

We get

1 = q B a 2 2 m v o r a = 2 m v q B 1=\quad \frac { qB{ a }^{ 2 } }{ 2mv } \\ \\ or\quad a\quad =\quad \sqrt { \frac { 2mv }{ qB } }

Now using the formula for R

we get

R = m v 2 q B \\ R=\quad \sqrt { \frac { mv }{ 2qB } }

which is nothing but

2 2 = 2.82847125 2\sqrt { 2 } =\quad 2.82847125

and why is the alpha particle foolish ?

Excellent approach...!!

Karan Shekhawat - 6 years, 8 months ago

Nice Work... I used Force analysis but your approach is nice...Thanks For Sharing. And I said alpha Particle Foolish Becoz if it had to Come return by travelling some distance then why initially It had Travels in X-direction. I know this is funny but i want to create Series Of question Of This type name so i choose that Title :P

And You May solved my other questions Of this "FOOLISH" Type named. If you NOT solved them previously. I have posted 2 other questions of this Type.

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 8 months ago

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When i tried force analsys, the resultant differential equation did not seem to have an easy analytical solution, and so i resorted to indirect tricks,, so do post your solution so we can learn how u handled it,, :)

and yes i did solve your foolish proton in cyclotron question

Mvs Saketh - 6 years, 8 months ago

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ya sure i will post it soon... since it takes lot of time..but when i have some time then i post full solution definitely

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 8 months ago

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@Deepanshu Gupta dx=(mv cosa da/qBx) Therefore Xdx=mv.cosa da/qB(integrate for a=0to π/2) x²/2= mv/qB X=√(2mv/qB) But i did nt got 2√2, i was getting 0.4(√2)

Ace Pilot - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Ace Pilot Oh. I got it, it was asking for radius and nt max. x Seems i am more foolish than dis alpha particle

Ace Pilot - 5 years, 9 months ago

U can write force equation and use kinetic energy conservation since magnetic forces do no work. That will give the answer easily

Rohit Shah - 6 years, 8 months ago

Nice approach! :) I used Force method!

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 9 months ago

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instead of d(sin (theta) ) he should write (sin d(theta)). should'nt he?

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 9 months ago

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I too am getting a bit confused in that . Let me think upon it again (later) :)

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 8 months ago

i know what he did but there is a great confusion in my mind , in eq 1 he wrote (sin d(theta) ) as d(sin theta) but if i take the approximation and write sin d(theta) as just d(theta) the l.h.s would be pi/2 which would be certainly wrong.what do you think @Prakhar Bindal . meanwhile i did it correctly using force method.

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 9 months ago
Prakhar Bindal
Sep 2, 2016

i did it using force approach.

Let particle has velocity v and u at any instant. (v along x and u along y)

Writing force equations

-qBxv/m = du/dt = udu/dy

qBxu/m = dv/dt = vdv/dx

Also using energy conservation v^2 + u^2 = (vo)^2

Substitute value of u in first equation and integrate from 0 to x and velocity from (vo) to zero as at maximum x coordinate velocity will be zero. (x velocity obviously)

Now just apply formula of radius of curvature to get required answer

I used the same method bro! :)

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 9 months ago

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count me in too , i used the same method! ¨ \ddot\smile

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 9 months ago

I am minority lol.

Swapnil Das - 4 years, 7 months ago

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