In the diagram below, the coefficient of friction between the block and the circular loop is μ . What should be the minimum velocity given to the block so that it just reaches the topmost point of the loop?
If the velocity is of the form v o = a g R ( e b π μ m − p μ q + 1 c ( d μ n − 1 ) ( e f π μ j + 1 ) ) , where a , b , c , d , f , p , m , n , j , q are all positive integers, find a + b + c + d + f + p + m + n + j + q .
Hint: Use linear differential equation.
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Accurate sir!
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The question says "e" is also a positive integer & has been asked in the final sum also. I think it should be mentioned that its the euler's number & should not be included in the sum which gives the correct answer.
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Hmm.. correct. This question have many small loopholes .. sorry
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@Md Zuhair – I am afraid you have not fixed matters. The number e should be Euler's number, and not a variable, so we do not need α .
I have edited the problem, restoring e and removing α (we only want ten integer variables - see my solution). In the interests of clarity, I have replaced i by p , so that nobody confuses it with the square root of − 1 .
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@Mark Hennings – Ok.. Ya sir, you are absolutely correct. :) Thanks sir. Btw, do sir are you in stack ?
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@Md Zuhair – I guess he is in UK.
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@Harsh Shrivastava – Ha.. he is in UK. So? Is it so that UK people cannot use stack?
great question!!!!! Is this original ?
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I thought about it... :P.. but there is a problem
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thats great!!!! you are in 11th and you know linear diiferential equation.....thats awesome!!!!!
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Initially I thought I solved it wrong and gave it....... d when saw Mark Hennings sir did it.... I was sure abt the answer. Tha ks btw. I knew LDE frm 10th.. well applying in phy is tough
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@Md Zuhair – your are smart!!!! i came to know about LDE only in 12th when we were formally taught differential equations.
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@A Former Brilliant Member – That doesnt matter. JEE doesnt sees the knowledge.. it checks the depth in knowledge+IQ which you have :)
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@Md Zuhair – well it all depends on what happens on "that day"
fantastic question!!! AND An really awesome solution by Mark Hennings!!
@Md Zuhair please post more question like this.
Can someone please explain how did the 8th and 9th lines ( start with d/d(Theta) ) come ?
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Note that θ ¨ = d θ d ( 2 1 θ ˙ 2 ) . Then e 2 μ θ is the integrating factor for the DE, which gives line 8. Line 9 comes from integrating line 8 with respect to θ , and applying the initial conditions to determine the constant of integration.
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Thank you very much Mr. Mark , actually , my real confusion is how did come θ ¨ = d θ d ( 2 1 θ ˙ 2 ) ? , is there any link or keyword for the proof or explanation to that ?
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@Ahmed Aljayashi – The Chain Rule tells us that θ ˙ × d θ d ( 2 1 θ ˙ 2 ) = d t d ( 2 1 θ ˙ 2 ) = θ ˙ × θ ¨ and the result follows.
Incidentally, this trick is really useful throughout Mechanics. For example, consider a particle moving in a vertical straight line under the influence of gravity and an external force F . Then m x ¨ = − m g + F and hence d x d ( 2 1 m x ˙ 2 + m g x ) = F so that 2 1 m x ˙ 2 + m g x = ∫ F d x + c which is the work-energy relation.
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@Mark Hennings – I'm very grateful to you , this was clear and helpful .
@Mark Hennings how you come from 4th to 5th line. please. ???
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@A Former Brilliant Member – I think I have already answered this. Isn't what you ask the same as Ahmed' question?
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If θ is the angle the radial line to the particle makes with the vertical, the tangential equation of motion is m R θ ¨ = − F − m g sin θ = − μ N − m g sin θ while the radial equation of motion is m R θ ˙ 2 = N − m g cos θ Putting these equations together, we see that m R θ ¨ + m g sin θ + μ ( m R θ ˙ 2 + m g cos θ ) R ( θ ¨ + μ θ ˙ 2 ) + g ( sin θ + μ cos θ ) d θ d [ 2 1 R θ ˙ 2 e 2 μ θ ] + g ( sin θ + μ cos θ ) e 2 μ θ 2 1 R θ ˙ 2 e 2 μ θ + 4 μ 2 + 1 g [ ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) cos θ + 3 μ sin θ ] e 2 μ θ = 0 = 0 = 0 = 2 R v 0 2 + 4 μ 2 + 1 g ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) and hence R θ ˙ 2 m 1 N = ( R v 0 2 + 4 μ 2 + 1 2 g ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) ) e − 2 μ θ − 4 μ 2 + 1 2 g [ ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) cos θ + 3 μ sin θ ] = ( R v 0 2 + 4 μ 2 + 1 2 g ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) ) e − 2 μ θ + 4 μ 2 + 1 3 g [ cos θ − 2 μ sin θ ] The least velocity that will enable the particle to reach the top is the one for which N = 0 for the first time at θ = π . For N to be 0 when θ = π we require that ( R v 0 2 + 4 μ 2 + 1 2 g ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) ) e − 2 μ π R v 0 2 v 0 = 4 μ 2 + 1 3 g = g ( e 2 μ π − 4 μ 2 + 1 2 ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) ( e 2 μ π + 1 ) ) = R g ( e 2 μ π − 4 μ 2 + 1 2 ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) ( e 2 μ π + 1 ) ) Notice that, for this value of v 0 , we have N d θ d N = 4 μ 2 + 1 3 m g [ e 2 μ ( π − θ ) + cos θ − 2 μ sin θ ] = − 4 μ 2 + 1 3 m g [ 2 μ ( e 2 μ ( π − θ ) + cos θ ) + sin θ ] and hence it is clear that d θ d N ≤ 0 for all 0 < θ < π , so we deduce that N ≥ 0 for all 0 ≤ θ ≤ π . Thus the smallest value of v 0 for which the particle gets to the top is v 0 = R g ( e 2 μ π − 4 μ 2 + 1 2 ( 2 μ 2 − 1 ) ( e 2 μ π + 1 ) ) which makes the answer 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 4 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 2 = 1 9 .