The Las Vegas casino
Magnicifecto
was having difficulties attracting its hotel guests down to the casino floor. The empty casino prompted management to take drastic measures, and they decided to forgo the house cut. They decided to offer an “even value” game--whatever bet size the player places
(
say
$
A
)
,
there is a 50% chance that he will get
+
$
A
, and a 50% chance that he will get
−
$
A
. They felt that since the expected value of every game is 0, they should not be making or losing money in the long run.
Scrooge, who was on vacation, decided to exploit this even value game. He has an infinite bankroll (money) and decides to play the first round (entire series) in the following manner:
Now, what is the expected value of Scrooge’s (total) winnings from this first round (which ends when he leaves)?
A "round" refers to the entire series of games played above. This question refers to the entire round. There are 4 rounds in the set of problems.
This problem is part of Go Big Or Go Home , which explores the linearity of expected value.
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Couldn't have explained it better! :)
man! this is some way to make money. do let me know of the casino ,if you find one, with this scheme on.
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But you have to have infinite amount of money ( or a lot) to actually gain something profitable
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There is a very small chance that he will play very many games, as there is only a fifty percent chance that he loses each game. (0.5)^n converges to 0 very quickly, as n increases. If we are assuming that he is playing infinite games, we should probably assume he has an infinite amount of money.
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@Bhagirath Mehta – „The likelihood of catastrophic loss may not even be very small. The bet size rises exponentially. This, combined with the fact that strings of consecutive losses actually occur more often than common intuition suggests, can bankrupt a gambler quickly.“
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martingale (betting system)
You can't. The house most certainly would be taking a cut, and even if it doesn't you could go bankrupt for $10.
I'm just pointing out that the casino odds don't have to be 50-50 for this to work (as long as you have infinite cash)
The EV is $0. The question assumes the Scrooge has infinite amount of money and he is willing to bet that much. (which is not practical in any case)
Even if Scrooge has 100 billion dollars (any finite number), the EV will be 0.
I think the assumption should be stated in the question.
What is the expected no. Of matches he played?????
Let the Expectation to win be E[x].
Now , the probability to win the first match only is 1/2.
As each time it loses it double its bet, and the game end after his first win.
So, E[x] = 1/2(10) + 1/2( E[x])
E[x] = 5 + 1/2(E[x])
E[x] - 1/2 E[x] = 5
E[x] = 10
So, he will won $10 at the first win.
Let us consider that the player placed a bet $ a at first (here a=10). Now, if he wins, then he takes + $ a = + $ 1 0 home.
If he doesn't, then he plays another game with bet $ 2 a and if he doesn't win then also, he plays with bets of $ 4 a , then $ 8 a and so on.
Say that he wins when he plays with bet of $ n a , then he gets + $ n a . But, the previous losses are − $ ( 2 n ) a , − $ ( 4 n ) a , . . . . , − $ ( n n ) a .
Now, observe that the total losses converges to $ ( n − 1 ) a .
Then, net gain/loss = + $ n a − $ ( n − 1 ) a = ( + $ n a − $ n a + $ a ) = + $ a = + $ 1 0
NOTE : We can say that he will win the bet with $ n a as there is a 50% chance of winning which states that the person is bound to win on atleast one future bet of $ n a after which he can leave with his positive gain.
This answer makes the rather strong assumption that Scrooge has infinite money with which to fund this venture, which I feel should be stated in the question.
@Anthony Hughes There is a very small chance that he will play very many games, as there is only a fifty percent chance that he loses each game. (0.5)^n converges to 0 very quickly, as n increases. However, Scrooge may have charged the bets onto a credit card or may be based on Scrooge McDuck (who practically has infinite money). Additionally, if we are assuming that he is playing infinite games, we should probably assume he has an infinite amount of money.
if he does' not get $10 in the first round..that is 1 times what he had invested....how is he gonna play the next..quite logical it seems..wat do u say
He probably has more money in his pocket than he has placed in the first bet.
People generally go into a casino with more than 10$
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If Scrooge wins the first match, he gets $10 and goes home. If he loses, he bets $20 in a second match.
Now, if he wins his second match, he makes a net total (his earnings minus the money he lost) of $20-$10= $10.
If he loses, he bets $40 in a third match .
If he wins the third match, he will make a net total of $40-$20-$10=$10.
If he loses, he bets $80 in a fourth match, and so on.
Note that no matter which match it is, if he wins that match, he will make $10 overall.
Eventually, as the number of matches played increases, Scrooge will win one match at some point, since he has a fifty percent chance of winning and fifty percent chance of losing each time.
This means that Scrooge will eventually make a net total of $10.