General Magnetics (06/05/2020)

A small conducting loop of radius a a and resistance r r is pulled with velocity v v perpendicular to a long straight conductor carrying a current i i . If a constant power P P is dissipated in the loop, find the variation of velocity of the loop as a function of x x . Given that x > > a x>>a
If you answer comes in the form of α x β μ 0 i γ a δ ( P r ) ϕ \Large\frac{\alpha x^{\beta}}{\mu_{0}i^{\gamma}a^{\delta}}(Pr)^{\phi}
Type your answer as α + β + γ + δ + ϕ = ? \alpha+\beta+\gamma+\delta+\phi=? The problem is not original.


The answer is 7.5.

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2 solutions

Karan Chatrath
May 6, 2020

Consider the circle to be a general distance x x from the wire. A general chord parallel to the wire is parameterised in polar coordinates and a point of intersection of the circle and chord is:

x c = x + a cos θ x_c = x + a \cos{\theta} y c = a sin θ y_c = a \sin{\theta}

The area of a strip along the chord of thickness δ x c \delta x_c is:

δ A = 2 y c δ x c \delta A = 2y_c \delta x_c δ A = 2 a 2 sin 2 θ δ θ \implies \delta A = -2 a^2 \sin^2{\theta} \delta{\theta}

The flux through this elementary strip is:

δ Φ = μ o I 2 π ( x + a cos θ ) δ A \delta \Phi = \frac{\mu_o I}{2 \pi \left(x+ a \cos{\theta}\right)}\delta A

δ Φ = 2 a 2 μ o I sin 2 θ δ θ 2 π ( x + a cos θ ) \implies \delta \Phi = -\frac{2 a^2 \mu_o I \sin^2{\theta} \delta{\theta}}{2 \pi \left( x+a \cos{\theta}\right)}

Considering only the magnitude, the negative sign can be dropped:

δ Φ = a 2 μ o I π ( sin 2 θ δ θ x + a cos θ ) \implies \delta \Phi = \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{ \pi}\left(\frac{\sin^2{\theta} \ \delta{\theta}}{ x+a \cos{\theta}}\right)

Taking the limit as θ 0 \theta \to 0 leads to:

d Φ = a 2 μ o I π ( sin 2 θ d θ x + a cos θ ) d \Phi = \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{ \pi}\left(\frac{\sin^2{\theta} \ d\theta}{ x+a \cos{\theta}}\right)

The magnitude of the total flux through the circle is:

Φ = a 2 μ o I π 0 π sin 2 θ d θ x + a cos θ = μ o I x ( 1 ) \Phi = \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{ \pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin^2{\theta} \ d\theta}{ x+a \cos{\theta}} = \mu_o I x \ \dots (1)

Keeping in mind x > > a x >> a

Φ = a 2 μ o I π x 0 π sin 2 θ d θ 1 + a cos θ x \Phi = \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{ \pi x} \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin^2{\theta} \ d\theta}{ 1+\frac{a \cos{\theta}}{x}}

Φ = a 2 μ o I π x 0 π sin 2 θ d θ 1 + a cos θ x a 2 μ o I π x 0 π sin 2 θ d θ \implies \Phi = \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{ \pi x} \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin^2{\theta} \ d\theta}{ 1+\frac{a \cos{\theta}}{x}} \approx \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{ \pi x} \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin^2{\theta} \ d\theta

Φ a 2 μ o I 2 x \Phi \approx \frac{a^2 \mu_o I}{2 x}

The rest of the solution proceeds according to that of @Steven Chase . It is noteworthy that if the assumption that x > > a x >> a is not considered, then the final result is independent of x x .

@Karan Chatrath Nice solution, I just upvoted.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

@Karan Chatrath + 0.9962640099626402 e t 2 s i n ( 2 1 399 t ) 0.1 e t 2 c o s ( 2 1 399 t ) + 0.1 \Large +0.9962640099626402e^{\frac{-t}{2}}sin(2^{-1}\sqrt{399}t)-0.1e^{\frac{-t}{2}}cos(2^{-1}\sqrt{399}t) +0.1 is it correct?? will be grateful if you reply.
Thanks in advance!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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No, it is not.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath I have edited my equation. Is it correct now??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member No.

v ( 0 ) = 0 v(0) = 0 v ˙ ( 0 ) = 10 \dot{v}(0) = 10

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath I have edited my comment again. Check now!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Almost correct. The coefficient of s i n sin should be positive. Please check your work again.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

Don't worry, you made a good effort. That is appreciable.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath Thanks Sir Your this comment feels me that I have corrected the question.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago
Steven Chase
May 5, 2020

Magnetic flux density:

B = μ 0 I 2 π x B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi x}

Flux linkage:

λ = π a 2 B = μ 0 I a 2 2 x \lambda = \pi a^2 B = \frac{\mu_0 I a^2}{2 x}

Induced voltage V V :

V = d λ d t = d λ d x d x d t = μ 0 I a 2 2 x 2 x ˙ V = \frac{d \lambda}{dt} = \frac{d \lambda}{dx} \frac{dx}{dt} = -\frac{\mu_0 I a^2}{2 x^2} \dot{x}

Power dissipated:

P = V 2 r = ( μ 0 I a 2 2 x 2 ) 2 x ˙ 2 r P = \frac{V^2}{r} = \Big( \frac{\mu_0 I a^2}{2 x^2} \Big)^2 \, \frac{\dot{x}^2}{r}

Rearranging for x ˙ \dot{x} :

x ˙ = 2 x 2 μ 0 I a 2 ( P r ) 1 / 2 \dot{x} = \frac{2 x^2}{\mu_0 I a^2} (P r)^{1/2}

@Steven Chase I will be happy if you follow up this

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

In the expression for flux linkage, it should be mentioned that x > > a x>>a , as otherwise the flux linkage will not be simply the product of magnetic induction and the area of the loop.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

What numerical result do you get with that?

Steven Chase - 1 year, 1 month ago

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The answer to this question is already given by Karan Chatrath .

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

@Steven Chase Sir I am not able to feel that magnetic vector potential A \vec{A} ??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

What do you mean by that?

Steven Chase - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Steven Chase Sir I was just asking that what is meaning of A \vec{A} but I got that from wikipedia. BTW I have uploaded a new question.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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