∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x
If the above integral is equal to b a , where a and b are positive integers with a square-free, find a + b .
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Its pretty amazing how the community comes up with variety of solutions , Great! +1
I have also posted one solution , you might check it :)
Nice solution!! Alternate: Just take out x common from denom .See my solution.
I = ∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x Same method as shown by Rishabh above this can be simplified to: ⇒ I = ∫ 0 1 / 3 ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x
⇒ I = ∫ 0 1 / 3 ( x 1 + x ) 4 ( x 2 1 − 1 ) d x
Let x + x 1 = t
( 1 − x 2 1 ) d x = d t ⇒ I = ∫ 0 1 / 3 t 4 − 1 d t So ⇒ I = 3 ( x + x 1 ) 3 1 putting limits we can get the answer
It would be helpful to explain the steps. How does the second line follow from the first? Someone could interpret it as "He forgot to write in the denominator".
Its pretty amazing how the community comes up with variety of solutions , Great! +1
Same method GM!
Same method! +1
First of all, Happy Birthday @Rajdeep Dhingra :)
Now, let I = ∫ 3 − 1 3 1 ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x
Using the property: ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x , we get
I = ∫ 3 − 1 3 1 ( e − x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x = ∫ 3 − 1 3 1 ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) e x d x
Adding both the values for I , we get:
2 I = ∫ 3 − 1 3 1 ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x
Now, substituting x = tan θ and d x = sec 2 θ d θ , we can write 2 I as:
2 I = ∫ 6 − π 6 π ( 1 + tan 2 θ ) 4 tan 2 θ ( 1 − tan 2 θ ) sec 2 θ d θ
Using the identity: 1 + tan 2 θ = sec 2 θ and 1 − tan 2 θ = cos 2 θ cos 2 θ , we get:
2 I = ∫ 6 − π 6 π ( 1 + tan 2 θ ) 3 tan 2 θ cos 2 θ cos 2 θ d θ ⇒ 2 I = ∫ 6 − π 6 π ( sec 2 θ ) 3 cos 2 θ sin 2 θ cos 2 θ cos 2 θ d θ
Further simplifying, we get:
2 I = ∫ 6 − π 6 π cos 2 θ sin 2 θ cos 2 θ cos 2 θ cos 6 θ d θ ⇒ 2 I = ∫ 6 − π 6 π ( sin 2 θ cos 2 θ ) cos 2 θ d θ ⇒ 2 I = 4 1 ∫ 6 − π 6 π sin 2 2 θ cos 2 θ d θ ⇒ 2 I = 4 1 2 1 3 sin 3 2 θ ] 6 − π 6 π ⇒ I = 4 8 1 ( sin 3 3 π − sin 3 3 − π ) ⇒ I = 4 8 2 8 3 3 = 6 4 3
Now, comparing, we get a = 3 , and b = 6 4 . So, the answer, a + b = 6 7 . :)
Good solution. You can improve it by adding the motivation behind the steps that were chosen. IE We decided to use the integration trick of ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x , because e x + 1 1 + e − x + 1 1 = 1 .
I have also posted one solution , you might check it :)
Same solution! :D
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Lol, yeah. I was surprised too, when he posted the same thing! :D
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I think this would be the most common approach. I did this too. And then there's the other approach by @Gautam Sharma
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Yep! I saw that too!
Its pretty amazing how the community comes up with variety of solutions , Great! +1
We use Weierstrass substitution where x = tan 2 y ⇒ y = 2 arctan ( x ) and then sin x = 1 + x 2 2 x , cos x = 1 + x 2 1 − x 2 , d y = 1 + x 2 2 d x . Now note that ∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x can be written as:
8 1 ∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 1 + e x 1 × ( 1 + x 2 ) 2 4 x 2 × 1 + x 2 1 − x 2 × 1 + x 2 2 d x
Now in this integral , as x = 1 / 3 , y = π / 3 and x = − 1 / 3 , y = − π / 3 and we change the limits accordingly.Using Weierstrass substitution we transform it to:
8 1 ∫ − π / 3 π / 3 1 + e y sin 2 y cos y d y
Now since 1 + e y sin 2 y cos y is an even function we use the property − a ∫ a e x + 1 E ( x ) d x = ∫ 0 a E ( x ) d x and then we have:
8 1 ∫ 0 π / 3 sin 2 y cos y d y
Now using the substitution u = sin y , d u = cos y d y and required changes in limits , we have:
8 1 ∫ 0 3 / 2 u 2 d u
= 8 1 × 3 u 3 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 3 / 2 = 6 4 × 3 3 3 / 2 = 6 4 3
Hence , a = 3 , b = 6 4 , a + b = 3 + 6 4 = 6 7
Its pretty amazing how the community comes up with variety of solutions , Great! + π 2 6 ζ ( 2 )
Its pretty amazing how the community comes up with variety of solutions , Great! +1....:P
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I = ∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x I = ∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 e x ( ( e x + 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) ) d x ( ∵ ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x ) 2 I = ∫ − 1 / 3 1 / 3 ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x ⇒ I = ∫ 0 1 / 3 ( 1 + x 2 ) 4 x 2 ( 1 − x 2 ) d x Substitute x = t a n y and use tan y = cos y sin y and sec y = cos y 1 followed by 2 sin y cos y = sin 2 y and cos 2 y − sin 2 y = cos 2 y . I = 4 1 ∫ 0 6 π ( sin 2 2 y ) ( cos 2 y ) d y = 8 1 ( 3 ( sin 2 y ) 3 ) ∣ 0 6 π = 6 4 3 ∴ 3 + 6 4 = 6 7