Hard Integration

Calculus Level 4

0 e 2 x sin x x d x = π a arctan b \int_0^\infty{\dfrac{e^{-2x}\sin x}{x}}dx=\frac{\pi}a-\arctan b

The integral above holds true for the integers a a and b b . Find a + b a+b .


The answer is 4.

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3 solutions

Relevant wiki: Differentiation Under the Integral Sign

Similar solution with @Kelvin Hong's using differentiation under the integral sign.

I ( a ) = 0 e a x sin x x d x Differentiate w.r.t. a . I ( a ) a = 0 e a x sin x d x By integration by parts = e a x cos x 0 + a 0 e a x cos x d x = 0 1 + a e a x sin x 0 + a 2 0 e a x sin x d x Note that I ( a ) a = 0 e a x sin x d x = 1 + 0 0 a 2 I ( a ) a = 1 a 2 + 1 I ( a ) = 1 a 2 + 1 d a = arctan a + C where C is the constant of integration. I ( ) = arctan + C = 0 Note that I ( ) = 0 = π 2 + C = 0 C = π 2 I ( 2 ) = π 2 arctan 2 Note that I ( 2 ) is the required integral. \begin{aligned} I(a) & = \int_0^\infty \frac {e^{-ax}\sin x}x dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Differentiate w.r.t. }a. \\ \frac {\partial I(a)}{\partial a} & = - \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin x \ dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{By integration by parts} \\ & = e^{-ax} \cos x \bigg|_0^\infty + a \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \cos x \ dx \\ & = 0-1 + a e^{-ax} \sin x \bigg|_0^\infty + a^2 \color{#3D99F6} \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin x \ dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Note that }\frac {\partial I(a)}{\partial a} = - \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin x \ dx \\ & = -1 + 0-0 {\color{#3D99F6}-} a^2 \cdot \color{#3D99F6} \frac {\partial I(a)}{\partial a} \\ & = - \frac 1{a^2+1} \\ \implies I(a) & = - \int \frac 1{a^2+1} da \\ & = - \arctan a +\color{#3D99F6} C & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{where }C \text{ is the constant of integration.} \\ I(\infty) & = - \arctan \infty + C = 0 & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Note that }I(\infty) = 0 \\ & = - \frac \pi 2 + C = 0 & \small \color{#3D99F6} \implies C = \frac \pi 2 \\ \implies I(2) & = \frac \pi 2 - \arctan 2 & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Note that } I(2) \text{ is the required integral.} \end{aligned}

Therefore, a + b = 2 + 2 = 4 a+b = 2+2 = \boxed 4 .

Thanks for your solution Sir. But first line have a typo, denominator should be x x not 2 2 .

Kelvin Hong - 2 years, 11 months ago

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Thanks. I have amended it.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 2 years, 11 months ago

Nice solution. As I mentioned in Kelvin's comment thread, though, you have a note of " I ( ) = 0 I(\infty) = 0 ", which is true but nontrivial to show.

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 11 months ago
Kelvin Hong
Jul 5, 2018

Relevant Wiki: Differentiation Under the Integral Sign

Let f ( t ) = 0 e t x sin x x d x , \displaystyle f(t)=\int_0^\infty\dfrac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}dx, by Differentiation under the integral sign: f ( t ) = 0 t e t x sin x x d x = 0 e t x sin x d x \begin{aligned}f'(t)&=\int_0^\infty\dfrac{\partial}{\partial t}\dfrac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}dx\\&=\int_0^\infty-e^{-tx}\sin xdx\end{aligned}

By using integration by part, we have the table below:

sin x e t x cos x 1 t e t x sin x 1 t 2 e t x \begin{array}{c|c}\sin x&-e^{-tx}\\\cos x&\frac1te^{-tx}\\-\sin x&-\dfrac1{t^2}e^{-tx}\end{array}

So we ended up with

f ( t ) = e t x sin x t + e t x cos x t 2 1 t 2 f ( t ) ( 1 + t 2 ) f ( t ) = e t x ( t sin x + cos x ) f ( t ) = t sin x + cos x 1 + t 2 e t x 0 = 1 1 + t 2 f ( t ) = arctan t + C \begin{aligned} f'(t)&=\dfrac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{t}+\dfrac{e^{-tx}\cos x}{t^2}-\dfrac1{t^2}f'(t)\\ (1+t^2)f'(t)&=e^{-tx}(t\sin x+\cos x)\\ f'(t)&=\dfrac{t\sin x+\cos x}{1+t^2}e^{-tx}\Bigg|_0^\infty\\ &=-\dfrac{1}{1+t^2}\\ \therefore f(t)&=-\arctan t+C \end{aligned}

To calculate C C , we may consider f ( ) f(\infty) , so

f ( ) = lim t 0 e t x sin x x d x = 0 \displaystyle f(\infty)=\lim_{t\to\infty}\int_0^\infty\dfrac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}dx=0 which help us to determine that C = π 2 C=\dfrac{\pi}2 Compute t = 2 t=2 , we now have 0 e 2 x sin x x d x = f ( 2 ) = π 2 arctan 2 \begin{aligned}\int_0^\infty{\dfrac{e^{-2x}\sin x}{x}}dx&=f(2)\\&=\frac{\pi}{2}-\arctan 2\end{aligned}

@Kelvin Hong How would you explain f ( ) = 0 f(\infty) =0 ?

donglin loo - 2 years, 11 months ago

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From the original integral, t goes infinity then exponential goes to zero.

Kelvin Hong - 2 years, 11 months ago

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Oh okay so you mean that 0 s i n x x d x = 0 \int_{0}^{\infty} \cfrac{sinx} {x}dx=0 but why? Can it be assumed like that?

donglin loo - 2 years, 11 months ago

@donglin loo No, e e^{-\infty} actually goes to zero, so it is same as calculate 0 0 d x \int_0^\infty 0dx . Also, you can see in page 4 in this pdf file http://www.math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/analysis/diffunderint.pdf That 0 sin x x d x = π 2 \int_0^\infty\dfrac{\sin x}xdx=\dfrac{\pi}2 .

Kelvin Hong - 2 years, 11 months ago

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@Kelvin Hong I see. Thanks for that clarification.

donglin loo - 2 years, 11 months ago

@Kelvin Hong Note that we cannot in general interchange limits with integrals. Your justification essentially is that the integrand goes to zero, but to show the integral goes to zero is another thing entirely.

To be clear, your conclusion is correct, but it's a nontrivial exercise to show that the limit of the integrals is also zero.

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 11 months ago

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@Brian Moehring I wonder why is it non-trivial? It is like finding the area between the line y = 0 y=0 and x x axis from zero to infinity, it is zero right?

Kelvin Hong - 2 years, 11 months ago

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@Kelvin Hong Oh, I'm not saying that it's nontrivial to show 0 0 d x = 0 \int_0^\infty 0 \, dx = 0 -- that is trivial. The problem is that you don't have that. You have a limit of integrals whose integrands go to zero. Like differentiating under the integral, it requires something more the just the limit existing to do it.

In particular, I am saying that this type of step is nontrivial: lim t 0 e t x sin x x d x = 0 ( lim t e t x sin x x ) d x \lim_{t\to \infty} \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}\,dx = \int_0^\infty \left(\lim_{t\to\infty} \frac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}\right) dx

The easiest way to justify it (as far as I can tell... I may be missing something) is to note e t x sin x x e x \left|\frac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}\right| \leq e^{-x} for all t 1 t\geq 1 and that 0 e x d x = 1 < \int_0^\infty e^{-x}\,dx = 1 < \infty . This is the set-up for Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem (which is probably the most celebrated theorem allowing us to interchange limits and integrals)

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 11 months ago

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@Brian Moehring Wow, I didn't think of that aspect, thanks for the information !

Kelvin Hong - 2 years, 11 months ago

we can use f(0) = pi/2 as it is the common dirichlet integral .

Arghyadeep Chatterjee - 2 years, 9 months ago

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We can use this to find C , C, but note that the given solution only works for t > 0 , t>0, so in order to use that fact, we would have to show the integral defining f f is continuous up to t = 0. t=0.

That is, you would have to justify a limit of an integral, and as far as I can tell, the required limit would be harder than the one used in Kelvin's solution.

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 9 months ago

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what if we just apply lim t-> 0+ on f(t). Then the solution would work . Only using the right hand limit would give the same result

Arghyadeep Chatterjee - 2 years, 9 months ago

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@Arghyadeep Chatterjee That's what I was saying. To be more clear, you would need to justify lim t 0 + 0 e t x sin x x d x = 0 sin x x d x \lim_{t\to 0^+} \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-tx}\sin x}{x}\,dx = \int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx or equivalently, since we already know the right integral is finite, lim t 0 + 0 ( 1 e t x ) sin x x d x = 0 \lim_{t\to 0^+} \int_0^\infty \frac{\left(1 - e^{-tx}\right)\sin x}{x}\,dx = 0

While I was able to find an easy justification for the limit required by Kelvin's solution, I can't think of one for this limit (though we can confirm it's true indirectly)

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 9 months ago
Pawan Goyal
Apr 21, 2019

0 e 2 x S i n x x d x = π a a r c t a n ( b ) \int_0^{\infty}\frac{e^{-2x}Sinx}{x}dx=\frac {\pi}{a}- arctan(b) This integration can be evaluated by exploiting Feynman's trick. Considering the parameterisation I ( a ) = 0 S i n x x e a x d x \implies I(a)=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{Sinx}{x}e^{-ax}dx a 0 a\geq 0 I ( a ) = 0 e a x S i n x d x \implies I(a)=-\int_0^{\infty}e^{-ax}Sinxdx

Differentiating w.r.t x x I ( a ) = 1 1 + a 2 \implies I'(a)=-\frac{1}{1+a^2} Note that, since we are interested in I ( 2 ) I(2) and we got I ( 0 ) = π 2 I(0)=\frac{\pi}{2}

We obtain that, 0 2 1 1 + a 2 d a = [ I ( 2 ) I ( 0 ) ] = [ a r c t a n ( 2 ) π 2 ] -\int_0^2\frac {1}{1+a^2}da=-[I(2)-I(0)]=-[arctan (2)\frac {\pi}{2}] π 2 a r c t a n ( 2 ) = a r c t a n ( 1 2 ) \implies\frac {\pi}{2}-arctan (2)=arctan (\frac {1}{2})

The last equality follows from the relationship between the inverse tangent and inverse co-tangent function. The value of a + b = 4 a+b=4

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