Hot Integral - 2

Calculus Level 5

0 ( sin x x ) 102 cos ( 100 x ) d x = π A B × Γ ( C ) \large \displaystyle \int\limits_{0}^{\infty} \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^{102} \cos(100x) \, dx = \frac{\pi^A}{B\times \Gamma(C)}

If the equation above holds true for positive integers A , B A,B and C C with C C maximized, evaluate A B C + C B A A^{B^C}+C^{B^A} .

Notation : Γ ( ) \Gamma(\cdot) denotes the Gamma function .


This is a part of Hot Integrals .


The answer is 10405.

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1 solution

Mark Hennings
Mar 6, 2016

The standard integral 0 ( sin x x ) n cos m x d x = π n 2 n n ! k = 0 1 2 ( n m ) ( 1 ) k ( n k ) ( n m 2 k ) n 1 \int_0^\infty \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^n \cos mx\,dx \; = \; \frac{\pi n}{2^n n!} \sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor \frac12(n-m)\rfloor} (-1)^k {n \choose k} (n-m-2k)^{n-1} for integers 0 m < n 0 \le m < n quickly tells us that 0 ( sin x x ) 102 cos 100 x d x = π 2 × 101 ! = π 2 Γ ( 102 ) , \int_0^\infty \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^{102} \cos 100x\,dx \; = \; \frac{\pi}{2 \times 101!} \; = \; \frac{\pi}{2 \Gamma(102)} \;, so that A = 1 A=1 , B = 2 B=2 , C = 102 C=102 , and hence the answer is 1 2 102 + 10 2 2 1 = 1 + 10 2 2 = 10405 1^{2^{102}} + 102^{2^1} \,=\, 1 + 102^2 \,=\, \boxed{10405} .

I was lucky to read the formula elsewhere. Is there a proof for it?

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 2 months ago

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Let p ( x ) p(x) be the characteristic function of the interval [ 0 , 1 ] [0,1] . Its Fourier transform is ( F p ) ( x ) = 0 1 e i t x d t = 1 e i x i x = 2 e 1 2 i x sin 1 2 x x (\mathcal{F}p)(x) \; = \; \int_0^1 e^{-itx}\,dt \; = \; \frac{1 - e^{-ix}}{ix} \; = \; \frac{2e^{-\frac12ix}\sin\frac12x}{x} so that sin x x = e i x ( F p ) ( 2 x ) . \frac{\sin x}{x} \; = \; e^{ix}(\mathcal{F}p)(2x) \;. Thus ( sin x x ) n = e i n x [ ( F p ) ( 2 x ) ] n = e i n x [ F p ( n ) ] ( 2 x ) , \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^n \; = \; e^{inx} \big[(\mathcal{F}p)(2x)\big]^n \; = \; e^{inx} \big[\mathcal{F}p^{(n)}\big](2x) \;, where p ( n ) p^{(n)} is the n n -fold convolution of p p with itself. Thus the integral we want is 0 ( sin x x ) n cos m x d x = 1 2 R ( sin x x ) n e i m x d x = 1 2 R e i n x [ F p ( n ) ] ( 2 x ) e i m x d x = 1 4 R [ F p ( n ) ] ( x ) e 1 2 i ( n m ) x d x = 1 2 π p ( n ) ( n m 2 ) . \begin{array}{rcl} \displaystyle \int_0^\infty \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^n \cos mx \,dx & = & \displaystyle \tfrac12\int_{\mathbb{R}} \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^n e^{-imx}\,dx \\ & = & \displaystyle \tfrac12 \int_{\mathbb{R}} e^{inx} \big[\mathcal{F}p^{(n)}\big](2x) e^{-imx}\,dx \\ & = & \displaystyle \tfrac14 \int_{\mathbb{R}} \big[\mathcal{F}p^{(n)}\big](x)\, e^{\frac12i(n-m)x}\,dx \\ & = & \tfrac12\pi p^{(n)}\big(\tfrac{n-m}{2}\big) \;. \end{array} for 0 m n 0 \le m \le n . The value of p ( n ) p^{(n)} is most easily found using the Laplace transform, since [ L p ( n ) ] ( z ) = [ ( L p ) ( z ) ] n = ( 1 e z z ) n = k = 0 n ( n k ) ( 1 ) k z n e k z \begin{array}{rcl} \big[\mathcal{L}p^{(n)}\big](z) & = & \displaystyle \big[(\mathcal{L}p)(z)\big]^n \; =\; \left(\frac{1 - e^{-z}}{z}\right)^n \\ & = & \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k}(-1)^k z^{-n} e^{-kz} \end{array} Standard Laplace transform considerations give us that p ( n ) ( u ) = k = 0 n ( n k ) ( 1 ) k ( u k ) n 1 ( n 1 ) ! χ [ k , ) ( u ) = k = 0 u ( n k ) ( 1 ) k ( u k ) n 1 ( n 1 ) ! \begin{array}{rcl} p^{(n)}(u) & = & \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k}(-1)^k \frac{(u-k)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!} \chi_{[k,\infty)}(u) \\ & =& \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor u \rfloor } {n \choose k}(-1)^k \frac{(u-k)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!} \end{array} and hence 0 ( sin x x ) n cos m x d x = 1 2 π k = 0 1 2 ( n m ) ( n k ) ( 1 ) k ( n m 2 k ) n 1 ( n 1 ) ! = π 2 n ( n 1 ) ! k = 0 1 2 ( n m ) ( n k ) ( 1 ) k ( n m 2 k ) n 1 \begin{array}{rcl} \displaystyle \int_0^\infty \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^n \cos mx \,dx & = & \displaystyle \tfrac12\pi \sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor \frac12(n-m)\rfloor} {n \choose k}(-1)^k \frac{(\frac{n-m}{2}-k)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!} \\ & = &\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2^n (n-1)!} \sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor \frac12(n-m)\rfloor} {n \choose k}(-1)^k (n - m - 2k)^{n-1} \end{array} for 0 m n 0 \le m \le n , as required. Note that, since p ( n ) ( u ) = 0 p^{(n)}(u) = 0 for u < 0 u < 0 , this integral is equal to 0 0 for m > n m > n .

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 2 months ago

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This is truly awesome :)

Aman Rajput - 5 years, 2 months ago

It took me 2 weeks to understand this. Thanks!

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar You are welcome.

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@Mark Hennings Sir if you don't mind can you check the validity of this ? It is something very weird.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar Aditya, don't ask Mr Mark Hennings (or anyone else) to waste his time reading nonsense.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh I didn't know that it was nonsense. I thought he had made grave mistakes in his theory. I thought his theory would've been known to professionals. Alas, I was wrong.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 2 months ago

@Aditya Kumar Whatever it is, it is not accurate or mathematics. It seems (it is not at all well described) to be a formal way to assign meaning to series, but since it is one that provides finite values for divergent series, it is highly suspect.

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@Mark Hennings Thanks for viewing it.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 2 months ago

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