0 ∫ ∞ ( x sin x ) 1 0 2 cos ( 1 0 0 x ) d x = B × Γ ( C ) π A
If the equation above holds true for positive integers A , B and C with C maximized, evaluate A B C + C B A .
Notation : Γ ( ⋅ ) denotes the Gamma function .
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I was lucky to read the formula elsewhere. Is there a proof for it?
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Let p ( x ) be the characteristic function of the interval [ 0 , 1 ] . Its Fourier transform is ( F p ) ( x ) = ∫ 0 1 e − i t x d t = i x 1 − e − i x = x 2 e − 2 1 i x sin 2 1 x so that x sin x = e i x ( F p ) ( 2 x ) . Thus ( x sin x ) n = e i n x [ ( F p ) ( 2 x ) ] n = e i n x [ F p ( n ) ] ( 2 x ) , where p ( n ) is the n -fold convolution of p with itself. Thus the integral we want is ∫ 0 ∞ ( x sin x ) n cos m x d x = = = = 2 1 ∫ R ( x sin x ) n e − i m x d x 2 1 ∫ R e i n x [ F p ( n ) ] ( 2 x ) e − i m x d x 4 1 ∫ R [ F p ( n ) ] ( x ) e 2 1 i ( n − m ) x d x 2 1 π p ( n ) ( 2 n − m ) . for 0 ≤ m ≤ n . The value of p ( n ) is most easily found using the Laplace transform, since [ L p ( n ) ] ( z ) = = [ ( L p ) ( z ) ] n = ( z 1 − e − z ) n k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) ( − 1 ) k z − n e − k z Standard Laplace transform considerations give us that p ( n ) ( u ) = = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) ( − 1 ) k ( n − 1 ) ! ( u − k ) n − 1 χ [ k , ∞ ) ( u ) k = 0 ∑ ⌊ u ⌋ ( k n ) ( − 1 ) k ( n − 1 ) ! ( u − k ) n − 1 and hence ∫ 0 ∞ ( x sin x ) n cos m x d x = = 2 1 π k = 0 ∑ ⌊ 2 1 ( n − m ) ⌋ ( k n ) ( − 1 ) k ( n − 1 ) ! ( 2 n − m − k ) n − 1 2 n ( n − 1 ) ! π k = 0 ∑ ⌊ 2 1 ( n − m ) ⌋ ( k n ) ( − 1 ) k ( n − m − 2 k ) n − 1 for 0 ≤ m ≤ n , as required. Note that, since p ( n ) ( u ) = 0 for u < 0 , this integral is equal to 0 for m > n .
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This is truly awesome :)
It took me 2 weeks to understand this. Thanks!
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@Aditya Kumar – You are welcome.
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@Mark Hennings – Sir if you don't mind can you check the validity of this ? It is something very weird.
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@Aditya Kumar – Aditya, don't ask Mr Mark Hennings (or anyone else) to waste his time reading nonsense.
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@Pi Han Goh – I didn't know that it was nonsense. I thought he had made grave mistakes in his theory. I thought his theory would've been known to professionals. Alas, I was wrong.
@Aditya Kumar – Whatever it is, it is not accurate or mathematics. It seems (it is not at all well described) to be a formal way to assign meaning to series, but since it is one that provides finite values for divergent series, it is highly suspect.
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The standard integral ∫ 0 ∞ ( x sin x ) n cos m x d x = 2 n n ! π n k = 0 ∑ ⌊ 2 1 ( n − m ) ⌋ ( − 1 ) k ( k n ) ( n − m − 2 k ) n − 1 for integers 0 ≤ m < n quickly tells us that ∫ 0 ∞ ( x sin x ) 1 0 2 cos 1 0 0 x d x = 2 × 1 0 1 ! π = 2 Γ ( 1 0 2 ) π , so that A = 1 , B = 2 , C = 1 0 2 , and hence the answer is 1 2 1 0 2 + 1 0 2 2 1 = 1 + 1 0 2 2 = 1 0 4 0 5 .