For how many integer values of i , 1 ≤ i ≤ 1 0 0 0 , does there exist an integer j , 1 ≤ j ≤ 1 0 0 0 , such that i is a divisor of 2 j − 1 ?
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WTF!!! I thought that I wrote at least one solution without any typo... I wanna diiiiiiiiiiiiiiieeeeeeeeeeee...............
EDIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIT : 2 φ ( i ) − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d i )
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Calm down! :P
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I wrote only 2 2 solutions so far... And all of them includes at least one typo... What the hell is the Nobel Prize Committee doing???
Is Fermat's Little Theorem given by you is true for all integer a ?
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Yes, but there's a condition (I should have mentioned)... Only if... p ∤ a
First of all, note that i must be odd, since otherwise we get that an even number divides an odd number. We claim that all odd values of i work, and thus the answer is 5 0 0 .
Consider the set { 2 1 , 2 2 , 2 3 , ⋯ , 2 1 0 0 0 } . By the Pigeonhole principle, there must be two elements that have the same residue modulo i , since i ≤ 9 9 9 and has at most 999 residue classes. Let these two elements be 2 a and 2 b , with a > b . Then, since 2 and i are coprime, 2 a ≡ 2 b ( m o d i ) ⟹ 2 a − b ≡ 1 ( m o d i ) Since a ≤ 1 0 0 0 and b ≥ 1 , a − b ≤ 9 9 9 , and so j = a − b must satisfy i ∣ 2 j − 1 and 1 ≤ j ≤ 1 0 0 0 . We conclude that a j exists for all 5 0 0 odd i .
Motivation: First, I eliminated even numbers, and then I suspected that all odd numbers, or maybe all but a couple, like 999, worked. The proof followed relatively quickly when I thought about the different possible remainders.
+1 for not depending on Euler's theorem.
Great work!!
It is clear that i must be odd; otherwise it is impossible for 2 j − 1 , an always odd number, to be a multiple of i . So, assume that i is odd. We can rewrite the given equation using modular arithmetic to get 2 j ≡ 1 ( m o d i ) . By Euler's Theorem, 2 ϕ ( i ) ≡ 1 ( m o d i ) , where ϕ ( i ) is the Euler function; then since ϕ ( i ) ≤ i and i ≤ 1 0 0 0 for all i , we can choose j = ϕ ( i ) for all i , implying that all odd i work. Thus, the possible i are precisely the odd numbers in the range 1 , 2 , … , 1 0 0 0 , of which there are 5 0 0 .
Clearly, there are a lot of options for i and j so we really want to limit our options. When we see the word divisor , it is quite motivated to think about parity , in other words, odd and even factors. Also, we see 2 j − 1 which is a power , and we can change the problem to one regarding ( m o d i ) , so it would be motivated to consider (the generalised form of Fermat's Little Theorem) Euler's theorem which, by the way, says that: For a relatively prime to m , we have
a ϕ ( m ) ≡ 1 ( m o d m ) .
So since i is a divisor, it would be a neat idea to do some analysis of i first. Since 2 j − 1 is odd, i must be odd too (and not even).
So turning to our second idea, for odd i , let j = ϕ ( i ) to get by Euler's theorem, 2 ϕ ( i ) − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d i ) . Here's the catch, notice that since i < 1 0 0 0 , by definition, ϕ ( i ) < 1 0 0 0 , so for every odd i we can find a matching j .
Lastly, just remember that there are 2 1 0 0 0 = 5 0 0 odd i that is less than 1 0 0 0 .
2^j - 1 is always an odd number. By Fermat's Little Theorem, 2^j is congruent to 1 (modulo p). We can say that j = p - 1. 2^(p-1) is congruent to 1 modulo p. For any odd p, this condition satisfies. How about the composite odd numbers? By the theorem again, the gcd of 2 and any odd p is always 1. Hence, there 500 odd numbers that satisfies this condition.
how can u say that there are 500 odd nos. that satisfies this condition??
If i is even, then n ∤ 2 j − 1 since 2 ∤ 2 j − 1 . Otherwise, i is odd and so g cd ( 2 , i ) = 1 , hence i ∣ 2 ϕ ( n ) − 1 . Since ϕ ( n ) ≤ n − 1 , it holds for all odd i , which are 5 0 0 i 's in total on this interval.
I apologize. I put n in place of i in the second line (3 times).
by Fermat's little theorem a^{p-1} -1 is divisible by p if p and a are coprime. All odd numbers are coprime to 2,hence all odd numbers are divisible by 2^{j} -1
p must be a prime... So Fermat's little theorem doesn't work here, I guess...
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no, a and p must be coprime .
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Well, 1 5 and 4 are coprime...
1 5 4 − 1 − 1 = 1 5 3 − 1 = 3 3 7 5 − 1 = 3 3 7 4 ≡ 2 ≢ 0 ( m o d 4 )
You can read more here in Wikipedia and here in AoPS ... :)
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@Jubayer Nirjhor – fair point . i guess i was lucky no such cases turned up in the question
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Note that if i is a divisor of 2 j − 1 , we have: 2 j − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d i )
Another thing to note: 2 j − 1 ≡ − 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d 2 )
Hence, 2 j − 1 is odd which implies i to be odd...
When I saw an expression of the form a n − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d N ) , two things went on my mind: Fermat's Little Theorem and Euler's Theorem ..
Fermat's Little Theorem : If a is an integer and p is a prime, then...
a p − 1 − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d p )
We can use a = 2 and p = i ... But this gives only the values of i when i is a prime... So we need a more generalized version...
Euler's Theorem : If n and a are positive integers and they are coprime, then...
a φ ( n ) − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d n )
Now we have something useful... We can set a = 2 and n = i and get...
2 φ ( i ) − 1 ≡ ( m o d i )
And hence, we can set j = φ ( i ) (Note that i is odd and 2 is even and also a prime, and so they are obviously coprime)... By the definition of Euler's totient function and according to the question and our assumption, we have...
1 ≤ φ ( i ) = j ≤ i ≤ 1 0 0 0
So we're done... Don't forget that i is odd... Hence for all such odd i , there exists a j , such that...
2 j − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d i )
All that's left is counting the number of odd integers in the interval [ 1 , 1 0 0 0 ] which is simply...
2 1 0 0 0 = 5 0 0
Note : This solution could be shortened further to only 4-5 lines... But I tried to illustrate every step I took such that the beginners like me can easily understand... :) Thanks!