X , X + 2 , and X + 4 are all prime numbers when X = 3 . Is this true for any other X ?
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Just to clarify some things from the comments:
Any integer can be represented by 3 k for some integer k if it is divisible by 3, 3 k + 1 for some integer k if dividing by 3 gives a remainder of 1, and 3 k + 2 for some integer k if dividing by 3 gives a remainder of 2.
Since these are the only three possible cases, if we go through all of them as possibilities for X and find no situation where a prime triple other than 3, 5, 7 is possible, then we have proven "no" is the correct solution.
1, 3, 5 does not work because 1 is not a prime number. This issue came up in Problems of the Week a few weeks ago; I reproduce my comments here:
Historically but not universally, 1 used to be considered prime. (Euler, in a work from 1770, did not consider 1 a prime. Yet in 1914, the Carnegie Institution published an engrossing work entitled List of Prime Numbers from 1 to 10006721 .) However, there came to be many instances where we wanted something to be true for all prime numbers "except 1". Excluding 1 as a prime is now standard. (From what I gather, some European countries were the last holdouts on this -- if you believe you heard back in school that 1 is a prime number, you might not be mistaken.)
The most prominent example is the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic which states any integer 2 or larger has a unique factorization into primes. If 1 was allowed as a prime, this wouldn't be true (consider 1 0 = 2 × 5 = 2 × 5 × 1 = 2 × 5 × 1 × 1 = … ) .
Still calling bullshit. 1 not being prime would have been mentioned in the question if this was an issue
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You are correct. I'm not sure that the matter of 1 not being prime is of any great importance to me. This wasn't a "trick" question, it was question for people involved in mathematics a great deal more than I ever care to be. For me, "Math is just a means to an end."
I might have a complete brainfart but why is X=1 not a correct solution? 1 is prime, 3 is prime and so is 5?
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Because 1 is neither prime nor composite
Yea what about 1,3,5?
I think one is not a prime number.
It is now standard that 1 is not prime
Many years ago, I was taught that prime numbers are numbers that are only divisible by the actual number and 1 with no remainder and the number 1 was included. I guess the rules have changed.
^i thought the same thing, but I looked it up and the definition of a prime number includes that it must be greater than 1.
What about negative prime numbers? if X = -7 then the others will be negative prime numbers, unless "negative-prime" doesn't exist.
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Negative integers can't be prime. A prime number is always greater than 1.
So 1 not being considered as a prime number is a matter of semantics. Question's rigged.
Perhaps the question should include the trivia that 1, while at various times in history and education, has been mislabeled a prime number, it is not considered one in modern mathematics.
Fell for that pitfall too, but I see the argument about 1 not being prime. It's still common enough that it should be specified though.
How u can say x is 3k
Uh, what about x=57 ? Then x+2 = 59 and x+4=61, all three of which are prime numbers, no? Thus, isn't your official "solution" incorrect? ~Matt Frost
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Check your numbers again. At least the first one.
When I was in school, 1 was a prime number. This question sucks.
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But in modern mathematical literature, 1 isn't considered as a prime number.
Relevant wiki: Prime Numbers
One out of 3 consecutive odd numbers will be divisible by 3. The only prime that is divisible by 3 is 3. So if is odd and greater than 3 , this is not possible.
Now we only have to check X = 2 . For X = 2 , then 4 and 6 are not prime, so this does not work.
Therefore, 3 is the only X where all three are prime.
I think I gotta call bullshit on this one. What if x was 1?
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1 is not a prime number.
Actually, Brilliant has a nice wiki on this is 1 prime?
suppose, X=odd, because without 2, no even number is prime.........[so, even numbers are irrelevant for this case.]
now, if, X = o d d , then,in every 3 or 4 numbers, there will appear at least a digit which is a factor of 3 , 5 , 7 etc
so, this is clear that,this condition is not true for all case(any other X)
The question asks for any other X , but you said just X = 3 in the last line
so, this is clear that,this condition is not true for all case when, X = 3
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i have typed that.
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Note that the condition is true when X = 3 . (Was mentioned in the problem)
oh! i forgot to remove the last 2 words, now that is okay.
Relevant wiki: Pythagorean Theorem
By applying the Pythagorean Theorem.
( x ) 2 + ( x + 2 ) 2 = ( x + 6 ) 2
You get x = 6. Therefore, the answer is no .
what how does pyth. thm prove anything here how does this proof show relevance i dont understand please explain sir
I also do not understand why you did this. Could you please explain?
No. For any three consecutive odd numbers, exactly one will be a multiple of three. For all other X; X is of the form 3a, 3a-1, or 3a+1. Trivial therefore to see that one of X, X+2 and X+4 is therefore divisible by 3. Hence "No." One of XX, X+2X+2, and X+4X+4 must be divisible by 3. Because of this, all three can be prime only if one of them is 3.
X=3X=3 gives 3, 5, 7 which works.
X=1X=1 gives 1, 3, 5 does not work because 1 is not considered a prime.
X=−1X=−1 gives the even more ridiculous -1, 1, 3.
So, 3, 5, 7 is the only such triplet, although there are prime triplets of the form XX, X+2X+2, X+6X+6 or XX, X+4X+4, X+6X+6. No, this is not true for any other x.
3+6n, where n is any natural number, cannot be prime since it obviously will be divisible by 3.
Let’s say x-2 is an odd number divisible by 3. x and x+2 will not be divisible by 3 so depending on what x is, they could both be prime. However x+4 will be 6 more than a multiple of 3, meaning that it must also be a multiple of 3 and therefore cannot be prime.
If you remove the x+4 requirement, then there are an infinite amount of possible x values satisfying the condition that x and x+2 are both prime. Google twin prime conjecture if you want more info on that. No, if X can be any other number, just X could be a non-prime number. The question says “true for any other X”, so any exception disproves the question. For example, if X = 6, it is divisible by 1, 2, 3 and 6, making it not a prime number. X+2=8, which is divisible by 1, 2, 4 and 8, and also not a prime number. Etc… As a little thinking will show, all primes beyond 3 are of the form 6n±1, where n is a positive integer. For example, if n is 1 then 5 and 7 are candidate primes, fulfilling the 3, 3+2 and 3+4 rule.
If n = 2, 11 and 13 are candidates. But the x then is 9, not prime.
n = 3 gives 17 and 19 but x is 15, not prime.
n = 4 gives 23 and 25m x is 21, not prime.
Notice the progression? x is 6n-3, easily proved. But 6n-3 isn’t a prime, it’s a multiple of 3.
6n-3 = 3(2n-1).
So NO the case of 3, 5, 7 is the only one that follows the rule required.
(Woo, I’ve done a number-theory proof! Just a few lemmas to fill in…)
"X, X+2,X+4 where X is prime other than 3"
gn is the difference between to successive Prime Numbers. The n-th and n+1-th prime.
As in gn= pn+1- pn
Example: pn = X and pn+1 = X+2 gn= X+2-X =2 - > gn = 5 - 3 = 2
It follows from the condition above that
gn = pn+1 - pn = 2 in two consecutive cases besides for X=3.
gn = 2 consecutively exist only between primes 3,5,7 which can be described as X, X+2, X+4.
Therefore there is no other prime for which the condition X, X+2,X+4 holds up.
One of them must be divisible by 3! (To be slightly more rigorous x + 4 = x + 1 (modulo 3), and one of x, x + 1 and x + 2 must be divisible by 3. Regards, David
First of all to recognise the prime number we have to use rules, first one the number must be greater than 1 and it has only two factors one and itself.
We know that 1 is not a prime number, so taking X=1 won't work. We also can't take X as an even number as
E V E N + E V E N = E V E N and any even no. greater than 2 isn't prime.
Now for X>3 and odd, one out of every 3 consecutive odd numbers is divisible by 3.
SO we're screwed anyways
Given that 1 is a prime then 1,3,5 ALL primes so x=1 or 3.
1 is not a prime number???
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AGREED! Someone didn't think this through.
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When I was in school in the 50's, we were taught the following: "Was 1 ever considered a prime number? However, Ray's New Higher Arithmetic (1880) states, "A prime number is one that can be exactly divided by no other whole number but itself and 1, as 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc."Feb 29, 2004 Was 1 Ever Considered to Be a Prime Number? - Math Forum - Ask Dr ... mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/64874.html"
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@John Martin – This argument was found to be false in the '70s, however. See: https://primes.utm.edu Ergo I was wrong and taught wrong!
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Relevant wiki: Division Algorithm
All numbers can be represented as 3k, 3k+1 or 3k+2 where k is a positive integer.
If X can be represented as 3k, X will not be prime as 3k is a multiple of 3. 3 is an exception as 3 itself is a prime number.
If X can be represented as 3k+1, X+2 is not prime as (3k+1)+2= 3k+3= 3(k+1) is a multiple of 3.
If X can be represented as 3k+2, X+4 is not prime as (3k+2)+4=3k+6=3(k+2) is a multiple of 3.