Hyperdiabolical

Calculus Level 4

What is the least value of a a such that cosh ( x ) e a x 2 \cosh(x) \le e^{ax^{2}} for all real x x ?

Image Credit: Wikimedia Spider Catenary by Finavon


The answer is 0.5.

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3 solutions

Julian Poon
Mar 12, 2015

If cosh ( x ) e a x 2 \cosh(x) \le e^{ax^{2}} , for all x x , then the minimum of a a would be when they intersect once.

So, f ( x ) = cosh ( x ) e a x 2 f(x)=\cosh(x) - e^{ax^{2}} has to have only 1 1 real root. Since both equations, cosh ( x ) \cosh(x) and e a x 2 e^{ax^{2}} are symmetrical to the line x = 0 x=0 , and they have a shape similar to parabolas, the 1 1 root is likely to be when x = 0 x=0 .

Well, substituting x = 0 x=0 in the equation cosh ( x ) e a x 2 = 0 \cosh(x) - e^{ax^{2}}=0 to solve for a a isn't going to do much help, so why not differentiate the equation and substitute x = 0 x=0

f ( x ) = d d x cosh ( x ) e a x 2 = sinh ( x ) 2 a x e a x 2 f'(x)=\frac { d }{ dx } \cosh (x)-e^{ ax^{ 2 } }=\sinh (x)-2axe^{ ax^{ 2 } }

As you can see, substituting x = 0 x=0 in this equation isn't much help either, so let's differentiate one more time:

f ( x ) = cosh ( x ) 2 a e a x 2 ( 2 a x 2 + 1 ) f''(x)=\cosh (x)-2ae^{ax^2}(2ax^2+1)

Now, substituting x = 0 x=0 and evaluating f ( x ) = 0 f''(x)=0

cosh ( 0 ) 2 a e 0 ( 0 + 1 ) = 0 \cosh (0)-2ae^{ 0 }(0+1)=0 a = 0.5 a=\boxed{0.5}

did the same.

Trishit Chandra - 6 years, 3 months ago
Fiki Akbar
Mar 21, 2015

We have e a x 2 cosh ( x ) e^{ax^{2}} \geq \cosh(x) Since natural logarithm is an increasing function and both e a x 2 e^{ax^{2}} and cosh [ x ] \cosh[x] have positive value, then we have a 1 x 2 log ( cosh ( x ) ) a \geq \frac{1}{x^{2}}\log(\cosh(x))

Since the inequality is true for all x R x \in R , then the minimum value of a a is a = max ( 1 x 2 log ( cosh ( x ) ) ) = 1 2 a = \max\left(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\log(\cosh(x))\right) = \frac{1}{2} .

If the inequality holds true for all real x x , then

0 lim x 0 e a x 2 1 2 ( e x + e x ) x 2 = 0 \le \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{e^{ax^{2}} - \frac{1}{2}(e^{x} + e^{-x})}{x^{2}} =

lim x 0 ( 1 + a x 2 + ) ( 1 + 1 2 x 2 + ) x 2 = a 1 2 . \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{(1 + ax^{2} + \cdots) - (1 + \frac{1}{2}x^{2} + \cdots)}{x^{2}} = a - \dfrac{1}{2}.

We would thus require that a 1 2 a \ge \dfrac{1}{2} for the inequality to hold true for all x x .

Now for a 1 2 a \ge \dfrac{1}{2} we have that

cosh ( x ) = e x + e x 2 = n = 0 x 2 n ( 2 n ) ! n = 0 x 2 n 2 n n ! = e 1 2 x 2 e a x 2 . \cosh(x) = \dfrac{e^{x} + e^{-x}}{2} = \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!} \le \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^{2n}}{2^{n}n!} = e^{\frac{1}{2}x^{2}} \le e^{ax^{2}}.

Thus the inequality holds true if and only if a 1 2 = 0.5 . a \ge \dfrac{1}{2} = \boxed{0.5}.

I don't really understand your solution, how did you get the first equation? (It might be obvious but I just didn't catch that, sorry)

Julian Poon - 6 years, 3 months ago

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Yeah, this is not the clearest solution, (it was written in the wee hours of the morning :P). As you have noted in your (excellent and upvoted) solution, we need to basically focus on the behavior near x = 0 x = 0 , which is why I looked at the limit. The denominator x 2 x^{2} was introduced since I knew what the lowest order terms left would be, and this was the most compact way of obtaining the desired inequality 0 a 1 2 . 0 \le a - \frac{1}{2}.

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 3 months ago

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Sorry to disturb you sir Can you try problem 19 sir (I know you can do it in seconds)

Krishna Sharma - 6 years, 3 months ago

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@Krishna Sharma I'm getting (C) 3 0 . 30^{\circ}. Is that what you get?

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 3 months ago

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@Brian Charlesworth Yup! :D got the same :)

Krishna Sharma - 6 years, 3 months ago

This is an old Putnam chestnut. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 3 months ago

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I used Taylor's series and had comparison of terms... somehow similar but..

John Ashley Capellan - 6 years, 3 months ago

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