Given: ∫ 0 1 tan − 1 ( 1 − x + x 2 ) d x = a π + lo g e ( λ )
Find the value of a − λ .
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see this , here the answer comes as 2 π − l n 2
so according to your answer its integral should be 2 π − ( 2 π − l n 2 ) = l n 2
thus comparing we get a=0 and λ = 2 1
so the answer should be -0.5 @Abhishek Maji
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I think you are correct @sandeep Rathod
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Please post your comment on this @Sandeep Bhardwaj
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@Abhishek Maji – You are right guys. I am extremely sorry for this silly mistake. I am editing the problem according to the answer. I make you sure it not to happen in the future. I will be very careful. Thanks for observing it. @sandeep Rathod @Abhishek Maji
@Abhishek Maji – I am editing your solution. Please post your solutions with your good latex. Its my humble request to you. @Abhishek Maji
No . lambda is 2.also! this is a 1998 jee problem!!!!!
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∫ 0 1 t a n − 1 ( 1 − x + x 2 ) . d x = ∫ 0 1 2 π − c o t − 1 ( 1 − x + x 2 ) . d x
And ∫ 0 1 c o t − 1 ( 1 − x + x 2 ) . d x is solved in the previous problem.. You can check it here
So ∫ 0 1 t a n − 1 ( 1 − x + x 2 ) . d x = l o g e 2
From here, we get a = 0 , λ = 2
⟹ a − λ = − 2 .