i i = ( e i π / 2 ) i = e − π / 2 It is (initially) surprising that an imaginary number raised to an imaginary number results in a real number.
Characterize all positive
k
such that
(
i
k
)
i
k
∈
R
.
Note: 0 0 is undefined.
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this problem inspired this
Excellent... I have the same approach!
please explain the 2nd line because a x y = ( a x ) y is not an algebraic identity if a is not a non-negative number. . So , i do not think that you can write i i k as ( i i ) k . @Michael Huang
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Here, we consider i = − 1 as the principal root, which is nonnegative.
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I mean that it is valid if and only if 'a' is a non negative REAL number . According to what you say this example will also be correct , i 4 π = ( i 4 ) π = 1 π = 1 . but we all know that i 4 π is an imaginary quantity . @Michael Huang
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@Ujjwal Mani Tripathi – I see what you are saying here. Sorry for the misunderstanding.
I thought 0^0 was, in fact, defined to be 1, just as 0! is defined to be 1.
Being k ∈ R + , ln ( i k ) = { ln ∣ i k ∣ + i ⋅ α ; α ∈ arg(ik) } . Taking the main branch of the multivaluated function arg, (i.e, Arg ( ⋅ ) and sorry, because I'm not giving the domain and codomain of Arg ( ⋅ ) ), we can say predetermined ln ( i k ) = ln ∣ k ∣ + i ⋅ 2 π ⇒ (remembering k ∈ R + ) ( i k ) i k = e i k ⋅ ( ln k + i ⋅ 2 π ) = e ( − 2 k π + i k ⋅ ln k ) = e − 2 k π ⋅ e i k ⋅ ln k and hence, ( i k ) i k ∈ R ⟺ k ⋅ ln k = n π ; such that n ∈ Z
l n ( i k ) = ln ( i ) + ln ( k ) Sir , how do you say that ln ( i ) = ( i π ) / 2
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Don't call me sir, you are my friend, I told you...
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Express ( i k ) i k = i i k ⋅ k i k = ( i i ) k ⋅ k i k = e − 2 π k ⋅ k i k The first factor is a real number, so it remains to focus on the second factor k i k , which leads to the possible solutions. Observe that k i k = e i k ln ( k ) = cos ( k ln ( k ) ) + i sin ( k ln ( k ) ) For k i k ∈ R , we need sin ( k ln ( k ) ) = 0 . Then, k ln ( k ) = n π for integer n ∈ Z . Thus, the solutions are k ln ( k ) = n π , n ∈ N (as given), which also makes e − 2 π k real.