Increasing Inverse

Algebra Level 3

Given that f ( x ) f(x) is a one-to-one, strictly increasing function. Is it necessary true that its inverse function f 1 ( x ) f^{-1} (x) is also a strictly increasing function?

Yes, it is true No, it isn't true

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1 solution

Chan Tin Ping
Dec 13, 2018

If its inverse function isn't strictly increasing function, then it exist two numbers a , b a, b such that a > b a>b and f 1 ( a ) f 1 ( b ) f^{-1}(a)\leq f^{-1}(b) .

As f ( x ) f(x) is strictly increasing function, and f 1 ( a ) f 1 ( b ) f^{-1}(a)\leq f^{-1}(b) . We get f ( f 1 ( a ) ) f ( f 1 ( b ) ) f(f^{-1}(a)) \leq f(f^{-1}(b)) , which is equivalent to a b a \leq b . Which is contradiction. Hence, the answer is t r u e \large true .

You don't need the conditions "continuous" and "one-to-one" (the latter is implied by "strictly increasing").

Otto Bretscher - 2 years, 5 months ago

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Ok thanks, but I think that maybe somebody don't know strictly increasing function has the property continuous. So I just keep it.

Chan Tin Ping - 2 years, 5 months ago

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Actually, a strictly increasing function need not be continuous.

Otto Bretscher - 2 years, 5 months ago

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@Otto Bretscher Ok, thanks.

Chan Tin Ping - 2 years, 5 months ago

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