Inequality or Chinese Remainder Theorem?

Find the number of positive integers a a , b b and c c such that

a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = a 2 b 2 \large { a }^{ 2 }+{ b }^{ 2 }+{ c }^{ 2 }={ a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 }

1 None of these 5 2

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2 solutions

The following method was used by Fermat, and is known as the infinite descent method a 2 0 , 1 ( m o d 4 ) , b 2 0 , 1 ( m o d 4 ) , c 2 0 , 1 ( m o d 4 ) . a^2 \equiv 0,1 \pmod{4}, \quad b^2 \equiv 0,1 \pmod{4}, \quad c^2 \equiv 0,1 \pmod{4}. This implies that a 2 b 2 0 ( m o d 4 ) . a^2b^2 \equiv 0 \pmod{4}. , It's not possible a 2 b 2 1 ( m o d 4 ) a^2b^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{4} because if this were true a 2 b 2 a 2 + b 2 + c 2 mod 4 a^2b^2 \neq a^2 + b^2 + c^2 \text{ mod 4 } .

Then there exists 5 possibilities. I'm going only to treat the following possibility: a = 4 k , b = 4 l , c = 4 m 16 ( l 2 + k 2 + m 2 ) = 256 l 2 k 2 l 2 + k 2 + m 2 = 16 k 2 l 2 a = 4k, b = 4l, c = 4m \Rightarrow 16(l^2 + k^2 + m^2) = 256l^2k^2 \Rightarrow l^2 + k^2 + m^2 = 16k^2l^2 .

Continuing this method, descending we'll get the equation WLOG 1 2 + 1 2 + c 2 = 1 6 n , n 1 1^2 + 1^2 + c^2 = 16^n, \space n \ge 1 , but this equation doesn't have any integer c c fullfiling it. So the equation above doesn't have any solution with a , b , c a,b,c positive integers...

Note.- There are 4 cases more for analyzing. I hope to finish this proof... Meanwhile the other 4 cases are left as an exercise to the reader

Thanks a lot to post the solution. I wanted that.

Priyanshu Mishra - 4 years, 9 months ago

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you're welcome. I hope you can understand it. I'm not very good with English, but you can ask me if you have some doubt...

Guillermo Templado - 4 years, 9 months ago

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Yes, i read about this method today.

Its called FMID variant.

Priyanshu Mishra - 4 years, 9 months ago

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@Priyanshu Mishra I hope to finish my proof, but give me some time,please. I'm very busy right now.

Guillermo Templado - 4 years, 9 months ago

@Priyanshu Mishra Fermat used this method for proving that the equation x 4 + y 4 = z 4 x^4 + y^4 = z^4 doesn't have no trivial integers solutions, and this implies that the equation x 4 n + y 4 n = z 4 n ( x n ) 4 + ( y n ) 4 = ( y n ) 4 x^{4n} + y^{4n} = z^{4n} \space \equiv \space (x^n)^{4} + (y^n)^{4} = (y^n)^{4} doesn't have no trivial integers solutions. For instance, x 12 + y 12 = z 12 x^{12} + y^{12} = z^{12} doesn`t have no trivial integers solutions. Indeed for demonstrating the last Fermat theorem, it's sufficient to prove that the equation x p + y p = z p x^p + y^p = z^p doesn't have no trivial integers solutions with p p a prime number, which Wiles did using "Taniyama-Shimura"... joininig two branches of mathematics, elliptic curves and algebraic number theory...

Guillermo Templado - 4 years, 9 months ago

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@Guillermo Templado Thanks , i understand that.

Thankyou also, for going so deep and discussing.

Priyanshu Mishra - 4 years, 9 months ago
Jesse Nieminen
Sep 2, 2016

Here's are a solution:

After some algebraic manipulation we get the following:

a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = a 2 b 2 ( a 1 ) ( a + 1 ) ( b 1 ) ( b + 1 ) = c 2 + 1 a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = a^2b^2 \implies \left(a-1\right)\left(a+1\right)\left(b-1\right)\left(b+1\right) = c^2 + 1

Now if we have an odd prime p p which divides the LHS, then 1 -1 must be a quadratic residue ( m o d p ) \pmod{p} .

Since ( 1 p ) L ( 1 ) p 1 2 ( m o d p ) \left(\dfrac{-1}{p}\right)_L \equiv \left(-1\right)^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \pmod{p} . (Using Legendre symbol and Euler's criterion )

p 1 ( m o d 4 ) p \equiv 1 \pmod{4} must be true if p p is an odd prime.

However, if either a a or b b is even, then the LHS is divisible by a positive integer which leaves a remainder of 3 3 when divided by 4 4 and thus is divisible by a prime which leaves a remainder of 3 3 when divided by 4 4 , which implies that a , b and c a,b\text{ and } c must be odd.

Now, a = 2 x + 1 , b = 2 y + 1 , c = 2 z + 1 a = 2x + 1, b = 2y + 1, c = 2z + 1 for non-negative integers x , y , z x,y,z .

After substitution and some algebraic manipulation we get, 8 x ( x + 1 ) y ( y + 1 ) = z ( z + 1 ) + 1 8x\left(x+1\right)y\left(y+1\right) = z\left(z+1\right) + 1 , where LHS is clearly even and RHS is clearly odd.

Hence, there are no positive integers a , b , c a,b,c which solve this diophantine equation. \square

Thanks for the nice and good solution.

Priyanshu Mishra - 4 years, 9 months ago

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