An Infinite Continued Fraction

Algebra Level 3

1 1 + 2 × ( 1 1 + 2 × ( 1 1 + ) ) = ? \cfrac { 1 }{ 1+2\times \left( \cfrac { 1 }{ 1+2\times \left( \cfrac { 1 }{ 1+\ddots } \right) } \right) } = \, ?


The answer is 0.5.

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1 solution

Rohit Udaiwal
Jan 25, 2016

1 1 + 2 ( 1 1 + 2 ( 1 1 + ) ) = x 1 1 + 2 x = x 2 x 2 + x 1 = 0 ( x + 1 ) ( 2 x 1 ) = 0 x = 1 2 , 1 \large \dfrac { 1 }{ 1+2\color{#20A900}{\left( \frac { 1 }{ 1+2\left( \frac { 1 }{ 1+\dots } \right) } \right)}} =\color{#20A900}{x} \\ \implies \dfrac{1}{1+2\color{#20A900}{x}} =\color{#20A900}{x} \\ \implies 2x^2+x-1 =0 \\ \implies (x+1)(2x-1) =0 \\ \therefore x=\dfrac{1}{2},-1 Because given expression contains only positive terms.Hence,neglecting -1. x = 0.50 \therefore x=0.50

1 1 + 2 ( 1 1 + 2 ( 1 1 + ) ) = x 1 1 + 2 x = x 2 x 2 + x 1 = 0 \frac { 1 }{ 1+2\left( \frac { 1 }{ 1+2\left( \frac { 1 }{ 1+\ldots } \right) } \right) } =x \\ \frac{1}{1+2x}=x\Rightarrow 2x^2+x-1=0

Akshat Sharda - 5 years, 4 months ago

Why does it must be positive?

Leonard Gratias Agamus - 5 years, 4 months ago

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Because the numbers you are dividing and adding are all positives, therefore, the result of the combined operations is a positive number.

Alejandro Sainz - 5 years, 4 months ago

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That doesn't have to mean it is not a valid solution, just like the sum of all natural numbers is -1/12. Please correct me if i'm wrong.

IKstreme 8 - 5 years, 4 months ago

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@IKstreme 8 I'm thinking the same thing.

Dallin Richards - 5 years, 4 months ago

@IKstreme 8 I have been studying the subject and I've found this.

There's an Euler Theorem stating that the continued fraction solution to the general monic quadratic equation x 2 + b x + c = 0 x^{2}+bx+c=0 with real coefficients b , c b,c is given by x = c b c b c b x=-\dfrac{c}{b-\dfrac{c}{b-\dfrac{c}{b-\ldots}}} and converges or not, depending on both: the coefficient b and the value of the discriminant b 2 4 c . b^{2}-4c.

1 ) 1) If b = 0 b=0 , the general continued fraction solution is totally divergent; the convergents alternate between 0 and \infty .

2 ) 2) If b 0 b\neq 0 we distinguish three cases.

a ) a) If b 2 4 c < 0 b^{2}-4c<0 , the fraction diverges by oscillation, which means that its convergents wander around in a regular or even chaotic fashion, never approaching a finite limit.

b ) b) If b 2 4 c = 0 , b^{2}-4c=0, the fraction converges to the single root of multiplicity two.

c ) c) If b 2 4 c > 0 , b^{2}-4c>0, the equation has two real roots, and the continued fraction converges to the largest of these.

Alejandro Sainz - 5 years, 4 months ago

@IKstreme 8 Look at Riemann's reordering theorem. A divergent series, its sum can be whatever you want.

Ernesto López Fune - 5 years, 4 months ago

Same question if the function Is right that means it should be having to roots both valid for the function so why isn't -1 a correct answer is this a flaw in mathematics Like the idiotic question 0.9999999999= 1 proof can any one satisfy me with his / her solution

Debasis Rath - 5 years, 4 months ago

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x can't be -.5 because we can't divide by zero,and this series is convergent so its sum will be the usual sum not the sum for 1+2+3... which is assigning a value to it not actually summing it up ,you will approach \infty if you do that ,

so the sum must be positive

Hamza A - 5 years, 4 months ago

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@Hamza A X is -1 not -.5

Zhi Wei - 5 years, 4 months ago

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@Zhi Wei oh

sorry i wasn't paying attention

but the sum must be positive anyway since it's convergent and all the terms are positive

Hamza A - 5 years, 4 months ago

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