Infinite sum

Calculus Level 5

For b > 1 b>1 and cos x = a \cos x = a , find the value of :

r = 0 cos ( r x ) b r \displaystyle \sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(rx)}{b^r} .

If for b = 3 2 b = \frac{3}{2} and a = 1 2 a = \frac{1}{2} , this value can be expressed as p q \frac{p}{q} ,where p p and q q are coprimes, then find p q pq .


The answer is 42.

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2 solutions

Anish Puthuraya
Jan 15, 2014

Let ξ = r = 0 cos ( r x ) b r \xi = \displaystyle \sum_{r=0}^\infty \frac {\cos\left(rx\right)}{b^r}
Even though there might be other methods to solve this problem, I find Complex Numbers . the most interesting to try out.

We know, e i x = cos x + i sin x e^{ix} = \cos x+i\sin x

Thus,

ξ = R e ( r = 0 e i r x b r ) \xi = Re(\displaystyle \sum_{r=0}^\infty \frac {e^{irx}}{b^r})

It is clear that this is a Geometric Progression with \infty terms and with a common ratio e i x b \frac {e^{ix}}{b} . Thus,

ξ = R e ( 1 1 e i x b ) \xi = Re(\frac {1}{1-\frac{e^{ix}}{b}})

I leave the simplification to the reader. Therefore, we get,

ξ = b ( b cos x ) b 2 2 b cos x + 1 \xi = \frac {b\left(b-\cos x\right)}{b^2-2b\cos x+1}

Using the values provided,

ξ = 6 7 \xi = \frac {6}{7}

Thus,

p = 6 p=6
q = 7 q=7

And Finally,
p q = 42 pq = \boxed{42}

To complete it, you have to show that the sum indeed converges. To be precise, you need to show e i x b < 1 \left | \dfrac{e^{ix}}{b} \right | < 1 .

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 4 months ago

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We know, from the properties of absolute values, that,

z 1 z 2 = z 1 z 2 |\frac{z_1}{z_2}| = \frac {|z_1|}{|z_2|} , z 2 0 z_2 \neq 0

e i x b = e i x b \Rightarrow |\frac{e^{ix}}{b}| = \frac {|e^{ix}|}{|b|}

e i x b = 1 b \Rightarrow |\frac{e^{ix}}{b}| = \frac {1}{b}

e i x b < 1 \Rightarrow |\frac{e^{ix}}{b}| < 1 , since b > 1 b>1

Hence, The sum converges .

Anish Puthuraya - 7 years, 4 months ago

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Yes, but you had to include it in your OP.

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 4 months ago

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@Sreejato Bhattacharya I can't edit it now, Sorry. Anyways, its in the comments now.!

Anish Puthuraya - 7 years, 4 months ago

Did the same

Rohit Shah - 6 years, 5 months ago

You could also note cos(rx) has period 6 so the request sum is just 6 infinite geometric series sum togethr rest computation

<> <> - 3 years, 8 months ago
Pranav Arora
Jan 15, 2014

Let

A = r = 0 cos ( r x ) b r \displaystyle A=\sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(rx)}{b^r}

Consider

B = r = 0 sin ( r x ) b r \displaystyle B=\sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(rx)}{b^r}

We know that e i x = cos x + i sin x e^{ix}=\cos x+i\sin x , hence, we have

A + i B = r = 0 e i r x b r \displaystyle A+iB=\sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{irx}}{b^r}

The RHS is an infinite geometric progression with common ratio e i x / b e^{ix}/b , hence

A + i B = 1 1 e i x b \displaystyle A+iB=\cfrac{1}{1-\frac{e^{ix}}{b}}

A + i B = b b e i x = 3 / 2 3 / 2 1 / 2 i 3 / 2 = 3 2 3 i \displaystyle \Rightarrow A+iB=\frac{b}{b-e^{ix}}=\frac{3/2}{3/2-1/2-i\sqrt{3}/2}=\frac{3}{2-\sqrt{3}i}

Multiply and divide by 2 + 3 i 2+\sqrt{3}i . For the given problem, we need the real part and it comes out to be 6 / 7 6/7 . Hence,

p = 6 , q = 7 p q = 42 \displaystyle p=6,q=7 \Rightarrow \boxed{pq=42}

Once again, to complete it, you need to show that the sum converges, i.e. e i x b < 1. \left | \dfrac{e^{ix}}{b} \right | < 1.

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 4 months ago

very good interesting solution rock on!!

g j - 7 years, 4 months ago

I think ,

B = r = 0 sin ( r x ) b r \displaystyle B=\sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(rx)}{b^r} should be from

B = r = 1 sin ( r x ) b r \displaystyle B=\sum_{r=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin(rx)}{b^r}

Th way you did then adding both we will get-

A + i B = i + r = 0 e i x b r A + iB = i + \displaystyle \sum_{r=0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{ix}}{b^r}

U Z - 6 years, 4 months ago

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