Consider all sets of positive real numbers which satisfy
a 1 2 + a 2 2 + a 3 2 + … + a 1 0 1 2 = 1
Find the infimum (minimum) value of 1 − a 1 2 a 1 + 1 − a 2 2 a 2 + 1 − a 3 2 a 3 + … + 1 − a 1 0 1 2 a 1 0 1 .
The value is of the form c a b . Find the value of a + b + c
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Oh wow, this is really nice!
This is a ripper!!!!But sir can u pls explain what made u think of inequality (1)...??in the 2nd line of your proof...and needless to say u get (+1)!!!!
The answer to this question is wrong!! I must confess, I spent way too long trying to figure out how to use Jensen's Inequality, or the AM-GM inequality or Cauchy-Schwarz to solve it. But nothing worked, and now I finally see why. Let's disprove the answer with a counterexample:
For 1 ≤ i ≤ 8 0 , let a i = 0 . 1 1 ; for 8 1 ≤ j ≤ 9 9 let a j = 0 . 0 4 ; let a 1 0 0 = 0 . 0 2 4 and let a 1 0 1 = 0 . 0 3 2 . Then plugging in the numbers gives ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 a i 2 = 1 , and i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 1 − a i 2 a i = 9 . 7 2 5 . . . < 1 0 . 1 5 = 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 Hence, the minimum value is not 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 .
So why doesn't Jensen's Inequality work? Let b i = a i 2 . Then we are really trying to find the minimum of the following sum: i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 1 − b i b i , where ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 b i = 1 . The problem is, Jensen's Inequality requires the function to be concave upward for the entire interval ( 0 , 1 ) . However, the second derivative of 1 − x x is: 4 x x ( 1 − x ) 3 3 x 2 + 6 x − 1 Therefore, it is not always concave upward, so we can't use Jensen's Inequality.
I honestly don't know all these complicated laws and equations like all the other geniuses on this site does, so I'll just post my way of solving this problem.
My method has its basis mainly on guesswork. My assumption was that when a1=a2=a3=......=a100=a101, the given equation will be minimal. In order to prove my assumption, I set a vastly simplified scenario of a1/(1-a1^2) + a2/(1-a2^2), and tried two examples where a1 = a2 = 1/sqrt(101), and where a1 = lim(x->0+)x and a2=lim(x->1-)x
The first instance gave me a result of (101 * sqrt101)/50, whereas the second gave a result of lim(x->inf)x
Therefore, I concluded that the result will be minimal when all the values of a were the same, hence obtaining the result of 101sqrt(101)/100 for the given equation.
In this case, a = 101, b = 101 and c = 100, therefore a - b + c = 101 - 101 + 100 = 100
Give a proof based on mathematics and not on guesses pls.
HINT: Apply Jensen's Inequality by taking f ( x ) = x / ( 1 − x 2 ) .
Answer is : 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 ,
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Correct @DEEPANSHU GUPTA
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@shubhendra singh Will you post your Solution.. Since You add Tag's of AM-GM & Cauchy-Schwarz inequalities. It seems to be more interesting.
In order to apply Jensen's you have to check for concavity / convexity conditions. This requires that the function is restricted to the domain [ 0 , 1 ) , which was not given originally.
Otherwise, we could have taken a i = − 1 0 1 , to obtain a negative sum which is clearly smaller. In fact, if we do not restrict to the non-negative numbers, then there is no lower bound.
@shubhendra singh Can you confirm that you intended for the values to be positive?
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@Calvin Lin which values are you talking about ??
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I added "all sets of positive real numbers" to the question. Please confirm that you intended for a i to be positive.
As I stated below, if a i = − 1 0 1 , then the value of the expression is clearly negative (equal to − 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 ), and hence the minimum is not what you stated it to be. In fact, if we allow for negative values, there is no minimum.
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@Calvin Lin – Oh yes I got it and thanks fpr editing the question.
I tried this and unfortunately it doesn't work, because here's what happens. Let s = ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 a i . Then, using Jensen's Inequality, we get the following: 1 0 1 1 i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 1 − a i 2 a i ≥ 1 − 1 0 1 2 1 s 2 1 0 1 1 s i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 1 − a i 2 a i ≥ 1 0 1 2 − s 2 1 0 1 2 s
This looks good, but it doesn't get us anywhere, and here's why. We can also use Jensen's Inequality with the square function as follows: 1 0 1 1 i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 a i 2 ≥ ( 1 0 1 s ) 2 1 0 1 1 ∗ 1 ≥ 1 0 1 2 s 2 s ≤ 1 0 1 Therefore, 1 0 1 2 − s 2 1 0 1 2 s ≤ 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1
So unfortunately, we get the sign facing the wrong way, and it doesn't work. Furthermore, as I showed in my solution. the answer to this question is not 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 , and so this question isn't legitimate.
The answer is \frac{3}{2} \times \sqrt{3}
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The minimum value is 2 3 3 .
For an arbitrary positive real number x < 1 , we have: 1 − x 2 x ≥ 2 3 3 x 2 (1)
Indeed, (1) holds true because it is equivalent to: x ( 3 x − 1 ) 2 ( 3 x + 2 ) ≥ 0
(The equality holds when x = 0 or x = 3 1 ).
Apply this, we have: ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 1 − a i 2 a i ≥ ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 2 3 3 a i 2
Thus: ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 1 − a i 2 a i ≥ 2 3 3 (2)
We can show a set of ( a 1 , a 2 , . . . , a 1 0 1 ) that satisfies the equality of (2), for example: a 1 = a 2 = a 3 = 3 1 ; a 4 = a 5 = . . . = a 1 0 1 = 0 . This ends my proof.