For a natural number n , let n ′ denote the arithmetic derivative .
Find the number of integers n ≥ 0 such that n = n ′ = n ′ ′ = n ′ ′ ′ = ⋯ .
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I love to read your solutions, they're so well crafted. I was fairly certain from my research that p p where p is prime was the only solution, glad to see it proved here. My only concern is that the number 1 is tacked to the end of your answer there. The p th derivative of 1 is clearly 0 for all p > 0 , but are we to exclude p = 0 as a member of the set? If not then A 1 = { 1 , 0 , 0 , . . . } and is clearly not a singleton set. This problem does not define p as a natural number, so I feel that we cannot assume it to be greater than 0 , therefore I feel the answer should be 4 , not 5 . What say you Abhinav Raichur? Thank you by the way for posting this problem, I was honored to see "Inspired by Garrett Clarke" pop up on my feed!
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Thanks for the kind comment Garrett :-). I think you are right, it should have mentioned that p is a positive integer.
YES I agree ...... p should be declared natural, and THANK YOU for getting me closer to a new type of NT { maybe NT calculus :p } , It helps me keep my mind busy while doin borin stuff { bathin, lectures etc.. } ....... NICE READ :)
love your solutions :) ... i've observed an algebraic essence in each of your NT problems { vieta root jumping for example} ... How do you manage to do that? . all I can do in NT is form the best possible algorithms :P {and compute in head}
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Thanks man! question is that how do you manage to do and understand heavy mathematics stuff at such a young age!? And Abhinav please edit the question and mention that p ∈ N .
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edited the problem .... I did not get your comment :) could u plz be more clear?
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@Abhinav Raichur – Nothing man, I just said that I wonder about you and other young people like you in brilliant that have such great mathematical knowledge.
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@Kazem Sepehrinia – I feel the same for these 14 yr olds ...... I got nervous initially , things hav improved now! :p
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@Abhinav Raichur – Time has changed man! :))
I also notice that n = p p for p prime were solutions so why there aren't infinytely many solutions??
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In the original problem, a limit was given. It was n < 1 0 1 0 , if I remember it correctly.
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In my previous solution to the Garrett's problem , I proved that for natural number n with prime factorization ∏ i = 1 k p i a i we have n ′ = n ( p 1 a 1 + p 2 a 2 + . . . + p k a k ) ( 1 ) For this problem, note that 0 is a solution, because all p -th derivatives of 0 is zero. Now, we need to have n = n ′ , which from equation ( 1 ) gives p 1 a 1 + p 2 a 2 + . . . + p k a k = 1 ( 2 )
We must have p k ≥ a k . Multiply both sides of equation ( 2 ) by p 1 p 2 . . . p k − 1 . It follows that p 1 p 2 . . . p k − 1 p k a k is an integer. Thus p k ∣ a k . Hence a k ≥ p k and a k = p k . Subsequently a 1 = a 2 = . . . = a k − 1 = 0 and n = p p for some prime number p .
Then its easy to see that answers to this problem are 0 , 2 2 , 3 3 , 5 5 , 7 7 . Thanks @Abhinav Raichur for the beautiful problem.