I = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 d x
If the value of the integral above is of the form b c π , where b , c are integers and c is square-free, find the value of 1 0 b + c .
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@Chew-Seong Cheong Exactly the same sir!! I learnt Gamma Function recently and was amazed by it....!!
Take 1 + x 4 = z Differentiating we get, d x d z = 4 x 3 .Now,the integral becomes, I = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 = 4 1 ∫ 1 ∞ z 2 ( z − 1 ) 4 1 d z .Now,taking z = sec 2 θ , differentiating we get, d θ d z = 2 sec 2 θ tan θ ,substituting we get, 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π sec 4 θ tan θ sec 2 θ tan θ d θ = 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π sec 2 θ tan 2 3 θ .Converting it into sin and c o s ,we get, I = 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π sin 2 3 θ cos 2 1 θ d θ I = 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π cos 2 3 θ sin 2 1 θ d θ .Adding we get that, 2 I = 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π sin θ cos θ ( sin θ + cos θ ) d θ .Making the substitution sin θ − cos θ = y ⟹ 2 1 − y 2 = sin θ cos θ ,differentiating we get, d θ d y = cos θ + sin θ .Substituting we get, 2 I = 2 1 ∫ − 1 1 1 − y 2 d y = ∫ 0 1 1 − y 2 d y .Substituting y = sin ϕ ,we get d y d ϕ = cos ϕ .Substituting in the integral we get, 2 I = ∫ 0 2 π cos 2 ϕ d ϕ .This is a simple one I leave it to you.The final answer that you should get is I = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 = 8 2 π .And done!
Well nice method! Beta function makes it easy
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Thanks a lot!I haven't learnt Beta function actually.
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Nice solution. But too lengthy.
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@Surya Prakash – your problem itself is lengthy brother. i have one method. add 1 and subtract 1 from numerator and then try, then you have only fractions involving even power of x only and you can get ans without using Beta function or Ramanujan master theorem. i will try to write and mail you.
Ramanujan(Master Theorem) makes it as easy as a pie.
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Hey @Kartik Sharma , can u send the best website to learn about Ramanujan Master Theorem. It is very hard to understand in wikipedia.
Can u post your solution. I'm getting a different answer. Using Master theorem. I may have made a mistake in Mellin's transform. Please post ur solution. :'(
@Calvin Lin i carelessly forgot to tick on the box given.Could you please provide feedback when convenient?Sorry.
Alternate Solution:
I = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 d x = 4 1 ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x ) 2 x 4 1 d x = 4 1 M { ( 1 + x ) 2 1 } ( 4 1 )
where M{f(x)}(s) is Mellin Transform of f(x) over s.
Therefore, by Ramanujan's Master Theorem,
I = 1 6 Γ ( 4 1 ) Γ ( 4 3 )
@Pi Han Goh here's one using rmt.
I ( a ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + a x 4 ) − 1 d x l e t x = u ⋅ a 4 − 1 ⇒ d x = d u ⋅ a 4 − 1 I ( a ) = − a 4 − 1 ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + u 4 1 d u = − a 4 − 1 2 2 π d a d I ( a ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + a x 4 ) 2 x 4 d x = 2 2 π ⋅ 4 1 a 4 − 5 d a d I ( 1 ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 d x = 8 2 π
Integrating by parts: I = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 d x = 4 ( 1 + x 4 ) − x ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 ∞ + 4 1 ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + x 4 1 d x
∫ 0 ∞ x n + 1 1 d x = ∫ 0 ∞ ∫ 0 ∞ e − t ( 1 + x n ) d x d t
Sub u = x n t d u = n x n − 1 t d x
n 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − t t n − 1 d t ∫ 0 ∞ u n 1 − 1 e − u d u = n Γ ( 1 − n 1 ) Γ ( n 1 ) = n sin n π π
I = 4 1 ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + x 4 1 d x = 8 2 π
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I = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + x 4 ) 2 x 4 d x = ∫ 0 2 π 2 ( sec 2 θ ) 2 tan 2 θ tan − 2 1 θ sec 2 θ d θ = 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π sec 2 θ tan 2 3 θ d θ = 2 1 ∫ 0 2 π sin 2 3 θ cos 2 1 θ d θ = 4 1 B ( 4 5 , 4 3 ) = 4 Γ ( 4 5 + 4 3 ) Γ ( 4 5 ) Γ ( 4 3 ) = 4 Γ ( 2 ) 4 1 Γ ( 4 1 ) Γ ( 4 3 ) = 1 6 ( 1 ) Γ ( 4 1 ) Γ ( 4 3 ) = 1 6 2 π = 8 2 π Let x = tan 2 1 θ ⇒ d x = 2 1 tan − 2 1 θ sec 2 θ d θ ∫ 0 2 π sin x θ cos y θ d θ = 2 1 B ( 2 1 ( x + 1 ) , 2 1 ( y + 1 ) ) B ( x , y ) = Γ ( x + y ) Γ ( x ) Γ ( y ) Γ ( 1 + x ) = x Γ ( x ) Γ ( n ) = ( n − 1 ) ! Γ ( x ) Γ ( 1 − x ) = sin ( π x ) π , x = 4 3
⇒ 1 0 a + b = 8 2