Evaluate
P = k ∏ sin ( 2 0 1 6 k π )
where the product is taken over all k with 1 ≤ k ≤ 1 0 0 8 and g cd ( k , 2 0 1 6 ) = 1 .
Write your answer in the form P = 2 b a , where a and b are integers, and a is odd. Enter a + b .
Clariifcation : g cd ( ⋅ ) denotes the greatest common divisor function.
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Good usage of cyclotomic polynomials (and indirectly mobius inversion) to simplify this problem. When you see g cd ( n , k ) = 1 , chances are mobius inversion is involved.
Yeah! Same solution.
Relevant wiki: Dirichlet Convolution
My approach to this problem is less elegant.
Lemma: k = 1 ∏ n sin ( 2 n k π ) = 2 n − 1 n
Proof:
( 2 n k = 1 ∏ n sin ( 2 n k π ) ) 2 = ( k = 1 ∏ n 2 sin ( 2 n k π ) ) 2 = 2 ( k = 1 ∏ 2 n − 1 2 sin ( 2 n k π ) )
Using a method similar to Otto's, the product is
2 ( k = 1 ∏ 2 n − 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ 1 − e n i k π ∣ ∣ ∣ )
Since though roots of unity,
2 ( k = 1 ∏ 2 n − 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ x − e n i k π ∣ ∣ ∣ ) = ∣ x − e 2 i k π ∣ 2 k = 1 ∏ 2 n ∣ ∣ ∣ x − e n i k π ∣ ∣ ∣ = 2 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ x − 1 x 2 n − 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ = 2 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ k = 0 ∑ 2 n − 1 x k ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
2 ( k = 1 ∏ n ∣ ∣ ∣ 1 − e n i k π ∣ ∣ ∣ ) ( k = n + 1 ∏ 2 n − 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ 1 − e n i k π ∣ ∣ ∣ ) = 4 n
Putting it all together gives
k = 1 ∏ n sin ( 2 n k π ) = 2 n − 1 n
Now this is where mobius inversion comes in. Let k = 1 ∏ n sin ( 2 n k π ) = F ( n ) and 1 ≤ k ≤ n , ( n , k ) = 1 ∏ sin ( 2 n k π ) = f ( n )
Notice that
ln ( F ( n ) ) = 1 ∗ ln ( f ( n ) )
Where ∗ is the dirichlet convolution. Through mobius inversion,
ln ( f ( n ) ) = μ ∗ ln ( F ( n ) )
Substituting F ( n ) = 2 n − 1 n ,
ln ( f ( n ) ) = 2 1 d ∣ n ∑ μ ( d n ) ln ( d ) − ln ( 2 ) ⎝ ⎛ d ∣ n ∑ μ ( d n ) d − d ∣ n ∑ μ ( d n ) ⎠ ⎞
= 2 1 Λ ( n ) − ln ( 2 ) ( φ ( n ) − ε )
Where Λ is the von Mangoldt function, φ is euler's totient function and ε is the multiplicative identity.
Substituting n=1008 gives
f ( 1 0 0 8 ) = 2 − 2 8 8
Yes, that works too!(+1) It is good to see different approaches; thanks!
Note that Φ n ( 1 ) = e Λ ( n ) , meaning that our solutions are not so different after all.
Some small typos in your formula ln ( f ( n ) ) = . . . : Reverse the rôles of n and d in μ (three instances), and you need to subtract ϵ , I believe.
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Thanks for telling me, I've edited the solution. I'm not that good at cyclotomic polynomials, though it is a really interesting topic.
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My solution does not require any "deep" properties of the cyclotomic polynomial. When I came across ∏ ( 1 − e 2 i k π / n ) , I noticed that this is Φ n ( 1 ) , by definition.
We all have our favourite techniques; I can tell that one of yours is Möbius inversion ;)
Your Lemma is a well-known fact of basic trigonometry, of course, found in any good table . If you use that , your solution becomes quite short too.
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@Otto Bretscher – I know, it just seems that cyclotomic polynomials appear to possess "magical" properties such as having integer coefficients.
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@Julian Poon – Well, things appear magical until you see the "trick" ;) It's just long divison, as you know.
I don't understand how ln(F(n))=1*ln(f(n)) I've tried the algebra a lot of different ways but I can't get the sums to be the same
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Hint: Use the fact that φ ∗ 1 = n . It's rather late now, so if you still have trouble you can comment again, I'll explain it in greater detail.
At the beginning the mention may be allowed that the following solution is obviously not so elegant - but "The end justifies the means!":
First calculate the value for the product via EXCEL: P=2.01076E-87
Now adapt the result to the necessary form: l n ( 2 ) l n ( a P ) = − b
Already for a=1 obtain b=288 and therefore solution 2 8 9 .
Genau, "der Zweck heiligt die Mittel" (+1)
Since I don't know how to use Excel, I had to do it the old-fashioned way, the way my Landsmann Euler did it ;)
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Great problem!
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Why is this so???
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@Andreas Wendler – I've never thought of using mobius inversion on a product before.
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@Julian Poon – We need to see your solution, please! I did not use Möbius inversion, although I see how it could be done, in terms of the von Mangoldt function. There are various ways to show that Φ n ( 1 ) = 1 if n has more than one distinct prime factor.
@Julian Poon – Don't think so wide and the problem will reduce suddenly!
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We will find the product for 1 ≤ k ≤ 2 0 1 6 and g cd ( k , 2 0 1 6 ) = 1 . Let n = 2 0 1 6 , an even number.
We will work with moduli so that we don't have to keep track of messy factors i and e i t . Now
2 ϕ ( n ) P 2 = k ∏ 2 sin ( k π / n ) = k ∏ ∣ e i k π / n − e − i k π / n ∣ = k ∏ ∣ 1 − e 2 i k π / n ∣ = ∣ Φ n ( 1 ) ∣ ,
where Φ n ( x ) is the cyclotomic polynomial. We can use induction on n (or fancier methods) to show that Φ n ( 1 ) = p if n = p k is a prime power, and Φ n ( 1 ) = 1 otherwise.
Thus P = 2 ϕ ( n ) Φ n ( 1 ) = 2 5 7 6 / 2 1 = 2 2 8 8 1
and the answer is 2 8 9