True or False?
sin − 1 ( sin θ ) = θ .
The domain of sin θ is all real numbers.
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Both True and False are wrong. It's true for some x and false for other x. Just because there exists an x for which the equation is false, does not mean that the equation is false.
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Just because a broken clock tells the correct time twice a day, does not mean it's usually broken but working occasionally. If ever a mathematical premise is false, then it it is always considered false. Otherwise we'd say that 2x = x^2 is 'both true and false' because it's true when x=2, false otherwise.
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+1 for this
Can we also say that x/x is NOT (always) equal to 1? I thought about substituting x = i, so can we say that x/x = i/i but ≠ 1? Or can we even possibly do this?
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@Hustino Laserna – Or how about substituting x with 0 ? It too is not possible !
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@Aritra Roy – There is a name for that case "undefined quantity"
The question should have stated it as an identity to be disproved, as opposed to an equation which you quite correctly flag up
In Mathematics, if there is one case where the statement is false, then the entire statement is false.
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Then the question must be incomplete. One should mention clearly about the range in question itself.
That x may be + or - x., which matters the most. As it is not specified it is false
Agree with David Hammer.
I think it sort of does. An equation pretty much has to be true for the range.
Yes, the question itself was wrong.
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Questions are never wrong its your perception thats wrong
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@Bhargav Pavuluri – Then you feel free to ask any ambiguous question without any possible answer? Your statement is right in some ways, questions are never wrong but the askers were wrong.
Is it true that sin ( sin − 1 x ) = x ?
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what if x is larger than 1 or less than -1?!
its always true
Yes because the graph of this equation will just be a straight line y = x for x lying between 1 and − 1
This is also false, because the domain of sin − 1 x is [ − 1 , 1 ] so plugging in any ∣ x ∣ > 1 will give an undefined equal to a number value.
However, it is true for all x such that both sides are defined.
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Taking the extension to complex numbers does make it true for all complex x .
u should put a value in the domain.
Because cyclic nature of sin arcsin( sin x ) = x+2kπ, when k is integer. BUT here we have angle theta in planar geometry context, I suppose, and that meant theta is between 0 and 2π. So, if you talk about function use appropriate letters for arguments
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What is the difference between the variable x and the variable θ , without stating any other restrictions on them?
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The difference is that we assume the variables to represent different things: this may not seem very mathematical because it is implicit, but it is necessary when there is not enough information to go off. Was θ supposed to be a natural number, a complex number, a hyperreal number, or the number 5208? Also, you should specify that you mean arcsin ( sin θ ) rather than the reciprocal of sin ( sin θ ) if that is what you intended to mean.
In Euclidean geometry Theta+2Pi=Theta :) that is not true if you have an argument x. Trigonometric Identitie sin(theta) = a/c is not same as trigonometric function sin(x). Funny? Cyrcle or periodic, or both...
But is it not implied that you are working within the domain of the function? In general (by def) f^-1(f(x)) = x, but it's understood that you working within the appropriate domain. So, for example, if g(x) = 1/x, you can say that g^-1(g(x)) = x even though f(x)=x can be zero and g(x) can't be, because 0 is not within the domain (or range) of g(x).
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I agree with David. I get the point of these sorry of questions, but in practice most people take those things for granted and troubleshoot if a conflict comes up.
I was actually under the impression that any f ( x ) (and f − 1 ( x ) also) could be interpreted as either a mapping or a function depending on context (or whichever is specified), as one often wants to find all or multiple solutions to an equation, in which case restricting a map to a function will not do. Perhaps someone could verify that this is the case or correct me if not. Either way, I honestly don't see the point in restricting a map to a function in the context of pure Mathematics, as it only leads to mistakes and confusion such as this problem indicates.
It makes no sense to ask if an equation is true or false - it either has solutions or it doesn't. An identity can be true or false but this question uses an equals sign not an equivalence sign. It's a flawed question.
I thought it was true..as a layman my reasoning was sin Θ = sin Θ, so by inverse function i can write sin ^-1 (sin Θ) = Θ...What i'm missing here..m confused...plz help...
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u cant apply inverse on both sides. just like squre root. (1 * 1 ) = (-1 * -1) but 1 = − 1 . ArcSine is of same type
It is false because sine^-1 is not equal to 1/sine. 1/sine is equal to cosecant. sine^-1 can be written as arcsine to avoid confusion.
so i get that they said its false but i really dont see how it is false. ive done it out and it should definatly be true. can anyone give and example where it isnt
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Remember the basic Trigonometric functions sine, cosine, tangent, cosecant, secant and cotangent. If you remember the very basic definitions of those Trigonometric functions, then you will know that 1/sine is equal to cosecant rather than sine^-1. Sine ^ -1 is different from cosecant. Do not be fooled by how it is being written. If you graph Trigonometric Functions and Inverse Trigonometric functions, you will see the big difference. To avoid confusion, sine^-1 or inverse of sine can be written as arcsine
But isn't 1/sin= sin^-1
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No. 1/sine is equal to cosecant. sine^-1 can be written as arcsine to avoid confusion.
Why so? Also, what about when I use degree instead of radian? in that case, 560 degrees, say, is just (560-360) degrees, which is valid!
I've just typed sin^-1(sin(pi/2) into a calculator and it equalled pi/2...?
But it's not false it's just not true in all cases. The question was flawed
The inverse sine function does not exist unless you restrict the domain of the sine function to between -pi/2 and pi/2 (making it a one to one function) so you can't select theta>pi/2
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Note that since − 1 ≤ sin θ ≤ 1 for all values of θ , we can apply the inverse sine function to this value.
In particular, if θ = 4 , then sin^{-1} (\sin 4) = \( \pi - 4 .
I think the question itself was wrong, it didn't gave a range of the angle.
Technically, the question isn't wrong, but is written ambiguously and in a deliberately misleading manner. Before even beginning to solve this problem it is clear to see that it is a trick question, and giving a range for θ would draw attention to the domains and ranges of sin and sin − 1 , and imply the trick being used. This is how the problem is misleading—by trying to manipulate the way one thinks—and it is generally acceptable for a trick question to be misleading.
However, the question doesn't indicate the meaning of sin − 1 (which could be interpreted as the inverse mapping of the sin function, the inverse function of the sin function, or the reciprocal of the sin function). As such, the question is ambiguous; it is impossible for anyone to be certain that their answer will be accepted (without additional information). This makes the question unfair.
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I said the question was wrong because its "proposition" is not a really proposition: A proposition must either true or false in all cases (by any value of θ . I don't call this proposition , this is a proposition-function which depends on the angle θ . This question is right if and only if they provide a range of θ (e.g. ∀ θ ∈ R : s i n − 1 ( s i n θ ) = θ )
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By 'proposition' do you mean conjecture? It is definitely not true that a conjecture has to be true in all cases or false in all cases (as Nigel Denning already told David Hammer in the replies to Daniel Liu's solution). Even with the example range you've given the conjecture is still sometimes true and sometimes false (by Daniel Liu's explanation) if we take sin − 1 to be the inverse sin function.
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@Khai Seox – I'm not entirely sure what you're asking. Whether the conjecture is true or false depends on whether or not the equation is true in all cases.
Let's stick with sin − 1 representing the inverse sin function. For θ ∈ R there are some values of θ (namely those greater than π / 2 or less than − π / 2 ) for which the equation is false and the equation is true for the remaining values. Therefore, if we are taking θ to be any real number, the conjecture is false because the equation is not satisfied in all cases.
Before, when I said the conjecture would sometimes be true and sometimes be false, I was meaning for a single value of θ , although the conjecture actually implies that the equation must be satisfied for all values of θ in order to be true.
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@Will Cxp – I think you don't understand me, I haven't asked you anything, I just explained.
What I told is not the answer of the question, I said the question itself was wrong don't mean the answer is 'false'. I mean the question is ambiguous, but math must not ambiguous, math is the logic of the certainly/definitely and clearly things. So, the question may not considered as a good mathematical question.
If I answer this question, I will tell that s i n − 1 ( s i n θ ) = θ ⇒ θ ∈ [ − 2 π ; 2 π ] (just like "find x" with x is θ ). But the question provided only 'true' and 'false' as the possible answers. then my "correct/incorrect" is "sometimes" anyway. So, the question itself is invalid .
If the asker only wants either 'true' or 'false', then the question should be changed become either ∀ θ ∈ S e t O f T h e t a : … or ∃ θ ∈ S e t O f T h e t a : … or s i n − 1 ( s i n θ ) = θ ⇒ … .... Anyway, the question must be certainly.
Why are people making an obvious question way harder than it is. This is a trick question, if you got it right good for you. If you didn't nobody cares.
Let sin x = sin y , ⇒ y = sin − 1 ( sin x ) , where x is a general angle. So, y = n π + ( − 1 ) n x so that y is a principle angle of sin function, y ∈ [ − 2 π , 2 π ]
In the above equations, we should take appropriate value of n to get value of y in the principle domain.
So, for instance, when x ∈ [ 2 − π , 2 π ] , n = 0 , y = x
And when x ∈ [ 2 π , 2 3 π ] , n = 1 , y = − x + π
Et Cetera...
This y and x relation for each case can be easily obtained from the graph of sin − 1 ( sin x )
Think about it...!
It's not clear to me what you are doing here. You should explicitly state what it is you want to show.
@Calvin Lin , sir: I think I'm clear now. (Done some edits)
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Nope, it is still not clear to me what you are trying to say. You may think that you know what you want to say, but that is not expressed in what you have written. The various issues are
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No, I'm saying that y is a principle angle and thus will only be 0.
domain of sinx is all real number.so what, for any value of x, sinx ranges from -1 to 1.hence the left side return to x.I think the ans is wrong.
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I'm not sure what you mean by "hence the left side return to x.".
Are you saying that sin − 1 ( sin 2 π ) = 2 π ? If so, what is sin − 1 0 ?
Note that the inverse is a (single-valued) function.
Let's take the angle as -90,then the statement is false,the correct answer should satisfy all conditions.So,its false
Some angle should have been provided... The answer is partially wrong and partially correct
Both True and False are wrong. It's true for some x and false for other x. Just because there exists an x for which the equation is false, does not mean that the equation is false.
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Note that the range of f ( x ) = sin − 1 x is [ − 2 π , 2 π ] and the range of f ( x ) = x is R .
With this in mind, if we pick a ∣ θ ∣ > 2 π it is easy to see the equation is false.