∫ 0 π x 1 − cos x d x
If the above integral equals V , find ⌊ 1 0 5 V ⌋ .
NB: Once you figure out the integral's closed form, perhaps with a bit of research, you can use Wolfram Alpha to help you get the final form.
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( − π 2 ) k
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The first method is incomplete, you need to integrate back w.r.t. n to get I(n) and hence I(1/2). The second method, both the integrals diverge individually, but not when combined. Think in terms of indeterminate form, for instance infinity - infinity.
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@Ishan Singh – thnx bro, ab smj a gya , you rock ! :)
Second method diverges because x 1 and x cos x diverges when x → 0 .
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that's what i wanna ask, if it diverges , how the other methods yield an answer and also why is my first method wrong ?
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V = ∫ 0 π x 1 − cos x d x By Maclaurin series = ∫ 0 π x 1 − ( 1 − 2 ! x 2 + 4 ! x 4 − 6 ! x 6 − . . . ) d x = ∫ 0 π k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k ) ! ( − 1 ) k + 1 x 2 k − 1 d x = k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ( 2 k ) ! ( − 1 ) k + 1 π 2 k
Since cosine integral C i ( x ) = γ + ln x + k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ( 2 k ) ! ( − x 2 ) k , where γ is Euler-Mascheroni constant , then we have:
V = − k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k ( 2 k ) ! ( − π 2 ) k = γ + ln π − C i ( π ) = 0 . 5 7 7 2 1 5 6 6 + 1 . 1 4 4 7 2 9 8 8 6 − 0 . 0 7 3 6 6 7 9 1 2 = 1 . 6 4 8 2 7 7 6 3 4
⇒ ⌊ 1 0 5 V ⌋ = 1 6 4 8 2 7