Integral 21

Calculus Level 5

0 π 1 cos x x d x \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} \dfrac{1-\cos x}{x} \, dx

If the above integral equals V V , find 1 0 5 V \left \lfloor 10^5 V \right \rfloor .

NB: Once you figure out the integral's closed form, perhaps with a bit of research, you can use Wolfram Alpha to help you get the final form.


The answer is 164827.

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1 solution

Chew-Seong Cheong
Mar 16, 2016

V = 0 π 1 cos x x d x By Maclaurin series = 0 π 1 ( 1 x 2 2 ! + x 4 4 ! x 6 6 ! . . . ) x d x = 0 π k = 1 ( 1 ) k + 1 x 2 k 1 ( 2 k ) ! d x = k = 1 ( 1 ) k + 1 π 2 k 2 k ( 2 k ) ! \begin{aligned} V & = \int_0^\pi \frac{1- \color{#3D99F6}{\cos x}}{x} dx \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \small \color{#3D99F6}{\text{By Maclaurin series}} \\ & = \int_0^\pi \frac{1- \color{#3D99F6}{\left(1-\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}-\frac{x^6}{6!}-...\right)}}{x} dx \\ & = \int_0^\pi \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{k+1}x^{2k-1}}{(2k)!} dx \\ & = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{k+1}\pi^{2k}}{2k(2k)!} \end{aligned}

Since cosine integral C i ( x ) = γ + ln x + k = 1 ( x 2 ) k 2 k ( 2 k ) ! \displaystyle \ce{Ci}(x) = \gamma + \ln x + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\left(-x^2\right)^k}{2k(2k)!} , where γ \gamma is Euler-Mascheroni constant , then we have:

V = k = 1 ( π 2 ) k 2 k ( 2 k ) ! = γ + ln π C i ( π ) = 0.57721566 + 1.144729886 0.073667912 = 1.648277634 \begin{aligned} V & = - \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\left(-\pi^2\right)k}{2k(2k)!} \\ & = \gamma + \ln \pi - \ce{Ci}(\pi) \\ & = 0.57721566 + 1.144729886 - 0.073667912 \\ & = 1.648277634 \end{aligned}

1 0 5 V = 164827 \Rightarrow \lfloor 10^5V \rfloor = \boxed{164827}

( π 2 ) k (-\pi^2)^k

Vishnu Bhagyanath - 5 years, 3 months ago

pl. help sir @Chew-Seong Cheong

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

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The first method is incomplete, you need to integrate back w.r.t. n to get I(n) and hence I(1/2). The second method, both the integrals diverge individually, but not when combined. Think in terms of indeterminate form, for instance infinity - infinity.

Ishan Singh - 4 years, 3 months ago

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@Ishan Singh thnx bro, ab smj a gya , you rock ! :)

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

Second method diverges because 1 x \frac 1x and cos x x \frac {\cos x}x diverges when x 0 x \to 0 .

Chew-Seong Cheong - 4 years, 3 months ago

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that's what i wanna ask, if it diverges , how the other methods yield an answer and also why is my first method wrong ?

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

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