Integral Stuff 4

Calculus Level 3

sin ( e x ) d x = π / a \text{}\int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \sin \left(e^x\right) \, dx=\pi / a . Find a.


The answer is 2.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

2 solutions

D S
Nov 16, 2017

Take x=lnu and the integral becomes 0 to infinity sinx/x so 2

Munem Shahriar
Nov 16, 2017

First, computing the indefinite integral:

sin ( e x ) d x \int \sin \left(e^x\right) dx

= sin ( u ) u d u + C = \int \dfrac{\sin (u)}{u} du+ C ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~~ ~ ; [ u = e x ] ;[ u = e^x]

= S i ( u ) + C = Si (u) + C

= S i ( e x ) + C = Si (e^x) + C

Now, computing the boundaries

lim x ( S i ( e x ) ) = 0 \lim_{x \to -\infty} (Si (e^x)) = 0

lim x ( S i ( e x ) ) = π 2 \lim_{x \to \infty} (Si (e^x) ) = \dfrac{\pi}{2}

Hence,

sin ( e x ) d x \int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \sin \left(e^x\right) dx

= π 2 0 = \dfrac{\pi}{2} -0

= π 2 = \dfrac{\pi}{2}

Hece a = 2 a = \boxed{2}

Most readers are interested in how to find the primitive of that sine. Not the answer, Amy possibility you can explain that part?

Peter van der Linden - 3 years, 6 months ago

This solution is incomplete. You didn't explain how you move from the first line to the second line.

Pi Han Goh - 3 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

It should be clearer now.

Munem Shahriar - 3 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

You didn't explain the most important step!

How did you show that sin ( e x ) d x = π 2 0 \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \sin(e^x) \, dx = \frac\pi2 - 0 in the first place?!

Pi Han Goh - 3 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

@Pi Han Goh Is that okay?

Munem Shahriar - 3 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

@Munem Shahriar That's better. But you still missed out a crucial step:

How do you prove that 0 sin x x d x = π 2 \displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} \dfrac{\sin x}x \, dx = \dfrac\pi 2 ?

Pi Han Goh - 3 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

@Pi Han Goh i don't think @Munem Sahariar has to prove that as it is a basic step of integration.

Mohammad Khaza - 3 years, 6 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...