Integrated Summation

Calculus Level 5

Consider the following sequence of variables defined as follows:

a n = 0 π 2 1 cos 2 n x 1 cos 2 x d x \displaystyle a_n = \int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{1- \cos 2nx }{1- \cos 2x } \text{d}x

If

S = n = 1 1 r = 1 n a r a r + 1 a r + 2 a r + 3 \displaystyle S = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\sum_{r=1}^n a_r a_{r+1} a_{r+2} a_{r+3}}

Evaluate 24 π 4 S \displaystyle 24\pi ^4 \cdot S .


The answer is 20.

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3 solutions

Sudeep Salgia
Jun 11, 2014

The summation clearly hints at the existence of a pattern among the sequence of integrals. Let us figure that out. Consider the following sum,

a n + a n + 2 = 0 π 2 1 cos 2 n x 1 cos 2 x d x + 0 π 2 1 cos 2 ( n + 2 ) n x 1 cos 2 x d x \displaystyle a_n + a_{n+2} = \int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{1- \cos 2nx }{1- \cos 2x } \text{d}x\ + \int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{1- \cos 2(n+2)nx }{1- \cos 2x } \text{d}x

a n + a n + 2 = 0 π 2 2 ( cos 2 n x + cos 2 ( n + 2 ) x ) 1 cos 2 x d x \displaystyle a_n + a_{n+2} = \int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{2- (\cos 2nx + \cos 2(n+2)x)}{1- \cos 2x } \text{d}x

a n + a n + 2 = 0 π 2 2 2 cos 2 ( n + 1 ) x cos 2 x 1 cos 2 x d x \displaystyle \Rightarrow a_n + a_{n+2} = \int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac{2- 2\cos 2(n+1)x \cos 2x}{1- \cos 2x } \text{d}x

On simple rearrangement, we obtain,
a n + a n + 2 = 0 π 2 2 cos 2 ( n + 1 ) x d x + 2 a n + 1 \displaystyle \Rightarrow a_n + a_{n+2} = \int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} 2\cos 2(n+1)x \text{d}x + 2a_{n+1}

a n + a n + 2 = 2 sin 2 ( n + 1 ) x 2 ( n + 1 ) 0 π 2 + 2 a n + 1 \displaystyle \Rightarrow a_n + a_{n+2} = 2\left.\frac{\sin 2(n+1)x}{2(n+1)}\right|_0^\frac{\pi}{2} + 2a_{n+1}

a n + a n + 2 = 2 a n + 1 \displaystyle \Rightarrow a_n + a_{n+2} = 2a_{n+1} .

Hence it is an Arithmetic Progression with its initial term as a 1 a_1 and common difference as a 2 a 1 a_2 - a_1 . For this we need to evaluate a 1 a_1 and a 2 a_2 , which are very easy to evaluate. We get,

a 1 = π 2 , a 2 = π \displaystyle a_1 = \frac{\pi}{2} , a_2 = \pi . Hence, common difference = a 2 a 1 = π 2 = a 1 = a_2 - a_1 = \frac{\pi}{2} = a_1 .

Everything has now become very easy. a r = r a 1 a r a r + 1 a r + 2 a r + 3 = r ( r + 1 ) ( r + 2 ) ( r + 3 ) × a 1 4 \displaystyle a_r = r a_1 \Rightarrow a_r a_{r+1} a_{r+2} a_{r+3} = r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3) \times a_1^4

Therefore,
r = 1 n a r a r + 1 a r + 2 a r + 3 = a 1 4 r = 1 n r ( r + 1 ) ( r + 2 ) ( r + 3 ) = a 1 4 5 × n ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 4 ) \displaystyle \sum_{r=1}^n a_r a_{r+1} a_{r+2} a_{r+3} = a_1^4 \sum_{r=1}^n r(r+1)(r+2)(r+3) = \frac{ a_1^4}{5 } \times n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)

Thus,
S = 5 a 1 4 n = 1 1 n ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 4 ) \displaystyle S = \frac{5}{ a_1^4} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)(n+4)}

Now, the required sum is a standard telescopic series and the value of summation evaluates to

S = 5 4 × 4 ! ( 2 π ) 4 \displaystyle S = \frac{5}{4\times 4!} \big( \frac{2}{\pi} \big)^4

24 × π 4 S = 20 \displaystyle \Rightarrow \boxed{24 \times \pi ^4 S = 20}

How does 5! come in the scene? I think it should be simply 5, no?

Check this

Pranav Arora - 7 years ago

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I am extremely sorry about it. Actually I was exploring these typical patterns and got carried away. It did not even come to my mind when I was rechecking it. I have edited it and also the sum. Sorry for the mistake. And thanks for bringing it into my notice.

Sudeep Salgia - 7 years ago

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Anyways, it was a nice problem. :)

Pranav Arora - 7 years ago

Superb problem...how do you come up with this? I had no idea how to solve this!!

Anish Puthuraya - 7 years ago

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@Anish Puthuraya It looks like a mix of two-three problems. The integral you see there is a very common one (okay, if not very common, the approach used is). Then Sudeep probably played with telescoping series to come up with this problem.

Pranav Arora - 7 years ago

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@Pranav Arora yeah, that makes sense..:D

Anish Puthuraya - 7 years ago

Fit hai boss!! great sum!

Avineil Jain - 7 years ago

you forgot about the summation which goes in the denominator too !

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 5 months ago
Jatin Yadav
Jun 11, 2014

Clearly, a n = 0 π / 2 sin 2 n x sin 2 x d x = 0 π / 2 sin 2 n x csc 2 x d x a_{n} = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \dfrac{\sin^2 nx}{\sin^2 x} dx = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 nx \csc^2 x dx

Use IBP, using sin 2 n x \sin^2 nx as first part csc 2 x \csc^2 x as second part to get :

a n = n 0 π / 2 sin ( 2 n x ) cot x d x a_{n} = \displaystyle n \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin(2n x) \cot x dx

= n I ( n ) n I(n) , where I ( n ) = 0 π / 2 sin ( 2 n x ) cot x d x I(n) = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin(2n x) \cot x dx

= 0 π / 2 sin ( 2 n 2 x 2 ) sin ( 2 x / 2 ) cos ( 2 ( 1 n ) x + ( 2 n 1 ) 2 x / 2 ) d x \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \dfrac{\sin(2n \frac{2x}{2})}{\sin(2x/2)} \cos(2(1-n)x + (2n-1) 2x/2) dx

= 0 π / 2 ( cos ( 2 ( 1 n ) x ) + c o s ( 2 ( 2 n ) x ) + + cos ( 0 x ) + cos 2 n x ) d x \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi/2} (\cos(2(1-n)x) + cos(2(2-n)x) + \dots + \cos(0 x) + \dots \cos 2n x) dx

= π 2 \dfrac{\pi}{2}

Hence, a n = n I ( n ) = n π 2 a_{n} = n I(n) = n \dfrac{\pi}{2}

Rest is simple summing using telescoping series.

All are wrong. The answer is obviously 21

Prithvi Dhanaraj - 5 years, 4 months ago

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Never mind, answer is 60275925838

Prithvi Dhanaraj - 5 years, 4 months ago

instead of thinking about generalisation just integrate upto 3 times taking n as 0, 1, 2 , you can easily see the recurrence is an A.P. of common difference π \pi /2 .... and then again telescoping would take time just sum it upto 2 or 3 terms and multiply as the change in sum would get enough small and then take it's ceiling function ! you get 20 which is the answer , easy enough ! :)

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