Consider the following sequence of variables defined as follows:
a n = 0 ∫ 2 π 1 − cos 2 x 1 − cos 2 n x d x
If
S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∑ r = 1 n a r a r + 1 a r + 2 a r + 3 1
Evaluate 2 4 π 4 ⋅ S .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
How does 5! come in the scene? I think it should be simply 5, no?
Log in to reply
I am extremely sorry about it. Actually I was exploring these typical patterns and got carried away. It did not even come to my mind when I was rechecking it. I have edited it and also the sum. Sorry for the mistake. And thanks for bringing it into my notice.
Log in to reply
Anyways, it was a nice problem. :)
Superb problem...how do you come up with this? I had no idea how to solve this!!
Log in to reply
@Anish Puthuraya – It looks like a mix of two-three problems. The integral you see there is a very common one (okay, if not very common, the approach used is). Then Sudeep probably played with telescoping series to come up with this problem.
Fit hai boss!! great sum!
you forgot about the summation which goes in the denominator too !
Clearly, a n = ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 2 x sin 2 n x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 2 n x csc 2 x d x
Use IBP, using sin 2 n x as first part csc 2 x as second part to get :
a n = n ∫ 0 π / 2 sin ( 2 n x ) cot x d x
= n I ( n ) , where I ( n ) = ∫ 0 π / 2 sin ( 2 n x ) cot x d x
= ∫ 0 π / 2 sin ( 2 x / 2 ) sin ( 2 n 2 2 x ) cos ( 2 ( 1 − n ) x + ( 2 n − 1 ) 2 x / 2 ) d x
= ∫ 0 π / 2 ( cos ( 2 ( 1 − n ) x ) + c o s ( 2 ( 2 − n ) x ) + ⋯ + cos ( 0 x ) + … cos 2 n x ) d x
= 2 π
Hence, a n = n I ( n ) = n 2 π
Rest is simple summing using telescoping series.
All are wrong. The answer is obviously 21
instead of thinking about generalisation just integrate upto 3 times taking n as 0, 1, 2 , you can easily see the recurrence is an A.P. of common difference π /2 .... and then again telescoping would take time just sum it upto 2 or 3 terms and multiply as the change in sum would get enough small and then take it's ceiling function ! you get 20 which is the answer , easy enough ! :)
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
The summation clearly hints at the existence of a pattern among the sequence of integrals. Let us figure that out. Consider the following sum,
a n + a n + 2 = 0 ∫ 2 π 1 − cos 2 x 1 − cos 2 n x d x + 0 ∫ 2 π 1 − cos 2 x 1 − cos 2 ( n + 2 ) n x d x
a n + a n + 2 = 0 ∫ 2 π 1 − cos 2 x 2 − ( cos 2 n x + cos 2 ( n + 2 ) x ) d x
⇒ a n + a n + 2 = 0 ∫ 2 π 1 − cos 2 x 2 − 2 cos 2 ( n + 1 ) x cos 2 x d x
On simple rearrangement, we obtain,
⇒ a n + a n + 2 = 0 ∫ 2 π 2 cos 2 ( n + 1 ) x d x + 2 a n + 1
⇒ a n + a n + 2 = 2 2 ( n + 1 ) sin 2 ( n + 1 ) x ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 2 π + 2 a n + 1
⇒ a n + a n + 2 = 2 a n + 1 .
Hence it is an Arithmetic Progression with its initial term as a 1 and common difference as a 2 − a 1 . For this we need to evaluate a 1 and a 2 , which are very easy to evaluate. We get,
a 1 = 2 π , a 2 = π . Hence, common difference = a 2 − a 1 = 2 π = a 1 .
Everything has now become very easy. a r = r a 1 ⇒ a r a r + 1 a r + 2 a r + 3 = r ( r + 1 ) ( r + 2 ) ( r + 3 ) × a 1 4
Therefore,
r = 1 ∑ n a r a r + 1 a r + 2 a r + 3 = a 1 4 r = 1 ∑ n r ( r + 1 ) ( r + 2 ) ( r + 3 ) = 5 a 1 4 × n ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 4 )
Thus,
S = a 1 4 5 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 4 ) 1
Now, the required sum is a standard telescopic series and the value of summation evaluates to
S = 4 × 4 ! 5 ( π 2 ) 4
⇒ 2 4 × π 4 S = 2 0