∫ 1 − cos x sin x d x = ?
Clarification : C denotes the arbitrary constant of integration .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
I = ∫ 1 − cos x sin x d x = ∫ 1 − cos x d ( 1 − cos x ) = ln ( 1 − cos x ) + C Since d ( 1 − cos x ) = sin x d x where C is constant of integration.
Ummm.......a bit overkill for this problem isn't it??
Log in to reply
Yes, I will change it.
Log in to reply
No its fine.....!! I didn't mean that........people will come to learn this technique...:)
Log in to reply
@Aaghaz Mahajan – It is okay. We should learn the best way.
I solved this by taking the derivative of each of the answer choices. While you could just take the antiderivative of the integrand, I found this to be easier.
Here are the answer choices and their derivative:
(Cosx)^2 --> 2(cosx)(sinx) ln(1-cosx)+c --> 1/(1-cosx)×(sinx) ln (sinx-cosx)+c --> 1/(sinx-cosx)×(cosx+sinx)
After taking the derivatives (which if you don't know how to do by hand (or head) then you might want to use a calculator) you can clearly see that thensecond choice above is the same. If you were to check this on a calculator, you would find that this is correct.
Dude Substitution method is more easier.
I request you to use Latex for your answer which makes it look good and understand better.
Log in to reply
Yeah substitution is easier. :P
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
∫ 1 − cos x sin x d x Put t Differentiate on both sides : − d t d t Substituting in the integral : − ∫ t 1 d t = ? = 1 − cos x = 0 − ( − sin x ) d x = sin x d x = l n ( t ) + c o n s t a n t = ln ( 1 − cos x ) + c o n s t a n t