Integration

Calculus Level 2

sin x 1 cos x d x = ? \int \dfrac{\sin x}{1 - \cos x}dx =\, ?

Clarification : C C denotes the arbitrary constant of integration .

ln ( sin x cos x ) + C \ln(\sin x - \cos x) + C cos 2 x + C \cos^2 x + C ln ( 1 cos x ) + C \ln(1 - \cos x) + C

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3 solutions

Ashish Menon
Jun 16, 2016

sin x 1 cos x d x = ? Put t = 1 cos x Differentiate on both sides : d t = 0 ( sin x ) d x d t = sin x d x Substituting in the integral : 1 t d t = l n ( t ) + c o n s t a n t = ln ( 1 cos x ) + c o n s t a n t \begin{aligned} \int \dfrac{\sin x}{1 - \cos x} \ dx & = ?\\ \\ \text{Put t} & = 1 - \cos x\\ \text{Differentiate on both sides}:-\\ dt & = 0 - \left(-\sin x\right) \ dx\\ dt & = \sin x \ dx\\ \\ \text{Substituting in the integral}:-\\ \int \dfrac{1}{t} \ dt & = ln\left(t\right) + \small \color{grey}{constant}\\ \\ & = \color{#3D99F6}{\boxed{\ln\left(1 - \cos x\right) + \small \color{grey}{constant}}} \end{aligned}

I = sin x 1 cos x d x Since d ( 1 cos x ) = sin x d x = d ( 1 cos x ) 1 cos x = ln ( 1 cos x ) + C where C is constant of integration. \begin{aligned} I & = \int \frac {\sin x}{1-\cos x} dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Since }d (1-\cos x) = \sin x \ dx \\ & = \int \frac {d(1-\cos x)}{1-\cos x} \\ & = \boxed{\ln (1-\cos x) + \color{#3D99F6}C} & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{where }C \text{ is constant of integration.} \end{aligned}

Ummm.......a bit overkill for this problem isn't it??

Aaghaz Mahajan - 2 years, 3 months ago

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Yes, I will change it.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 2 years, 3 months ago

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No its fine.....!! I didn't mean that........people will come to learn this technique...:)

Aaghaz Mahajan - 2 years, 3 months ago

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@Aaghaz Mahajan It is okay. We should learn the best way.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 2 years, 3 months ago

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@Chew-Seong Cheong That is true!!

Aaghaz Mahajan - 2 years, 3 months ago
Colin Carmody
Jun 15, 2016

I solved this by taking the derivative of each of the answer choices. While you could just take the antiderivative of the integrand, I found this to be easier.

Here are the answer choices and their derivative:

(Cosx)^2 --> 2(cosx)(sinx) ln(1-cosx)+c --> 1/(1-cosx)×(sinx) ln (sinx-cosx)+c --> 1/(sinx-cosx)×(cosx+sinx)

After taking the derivatives (which if you don't know how to do by hand (or head) then you might want to use a calculator) you can clearly see that thensecond choice above is the same. If you were to check this on a calculator, you would find that this is correct.

Dude Substitution method is more easier.

I request you to use Latex for your answer which makes it look good and understand better.

Samara Simha Reddy - 5 years ago

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Yeah substitution is easier. :P

Ashish Menon - 4 years, 12 months ago

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¨ \Large \ddot\smile

Samara Simha Reddy - 4 years, 12 months ago

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