I ( a ) = ∫ 0 1 x 1 − x 2 tan − 1 a x d x
If I ( 3 ) = p π ln ( q + r ) + s for integers p , q , r , s , calculate p + q + r + s .
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That s tricked me once!!
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@Parth Lohomi How come you are in 11th class and your age is 13
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Actually I have jumped two classes. :}
I have just entered 11th.
Same as I did.
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Is it possible to solve it had I asked I = ∫ 0 1 x 1 − x 2 t a n − 1 3 x .
There is 0.999..... probability that no one can think that (s)he has to find integral with a=3 and then substitute it back!
So any other possible idea in that case?
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You are wrong, even if you have directly aksed the question, then too many people woukd have used this trick to solve this question.
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@Ronak Agarwal – Oh! Ok! I will ask such question again in that way!
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I ( a ) = ∫ 0 1 x 1 − x 2 t a n − 1 a x d x
By using Leibniz's formula,
I ′ ( a ) = ∫ 0 1 ∂ a ∂ x 1 − x 2 t a n − 1 a x d x = ∫ 0 1 1 + a 2 x 2 x × x 1 − x 2 1 d x
Substituting x = t 1
I ′ ( a ) = ∫ 1 ∞ ( a 2 + t 2 ) t 2 − 1 t d t
Substituting t 2 − 1 = p 2
I ′ ( a ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( a 2 + p 2 + 1 ) ∣ p ∣ p d p
= 1 + a 2 1 [ t a n − 1 1 + a 2 x ] 0 ∞
⇒ d a d I = 2 1 + a 2 π
⇒ I = ∫ 2 1 + a 2 π d a = 2 π l n ( a + a 2 + 1 ) + c
By substituting a=0 in original equation, one may get c=0.
Hence, I ( a ) = 2 π l n ( a + a 2 + 1 )
I ( 3 ) = 2 π l n ( 3 + 1 0 )
p = 2 , q = 3 , r = 1 0 , s = 0
So p + q + r + s = 1 5