∫ 0 sin 2 ( x ) sin − 1 ( t ) d t + ∫ 0 cos 2 ( x ) cos − 1 ( t ) d t = c π
The equation above holds true for some positive integer c . Find c .
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Its a nice problem.
Differentiate function on left hand side wrt x using Newton Leibnitz theorem to get the derivative of the function zero.
which implies that the given function is constant function
so put x = pi/4 and evaluate
as simple as that :)
I appreciate your way bro! for answering fast :)
@Chew-Seong Cheong @Indraneel Mukhopadhyaya @Krishna Shankar
is this the way?
I did it the same way it's correct :)))
Why you differentiated LHS ... Its evident that if it comes out to be π / c for an integer c then it is constant for all x. Isn't it and as a result holds for all x !
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Just to confirm . if it was a subjective problem then?
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Yep then problem promises a better method . Obviously it is evident , its independent of any x you chose maybe its 0,1,2 or smartly pi/4.
Although I did it the same way.. :-)
Such type of problems are mainly Lebnitz one you can also solve it by your method
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Applying Leibniz on LHS is equivalent to differentiating a constant(RHS)...
However rather than putting x the problem promises a better method.. Let's see if anyone comes with it. :-)
I Think you understood it wrongly . I Said consider the function of left side to be f(x) and differentiate to show that this function is a constant function (as its derivative is zero) . i did not differentiate both sides of the question!!.
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No what I said is since LHS =RHS (obviously) ,differentiating RHS w.r.t x is as good as differentiating LHS w.r.t x.
Since you said LHS is f(x), so is RHS since they equate. Hence f ( x = π / c whose derivative is obviously zero! Isn't it?
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@Rishabh Jain – No if i would have given you to find for general x the value of LHS Then what will you do?
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@Prakhar Bindal – LHS is constant for all x ............. !! Its value is pi/4 ... That's what question is all about .. f ( x ) = 4 π ∀ x ∈ R
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@Rishabh Jain – Yeah thats the point thats why i differentiated the LHS to show that function in constant for all x .
If in a test you were asked some crazy value of x like pi/29 or so then we would have to differentiate in order to confirm that the function is constant for all x
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@Prakhar Bindal – Duh... I was just talking about this particular question only.
Anyways let's end this now. I rest my case... :-p
Use c o s − 1 x = π / 2 − s i n − 1 x and the expression simplifies to
( π / 2 ) ( c o s x ) 2 + integration of s i n ( t ) from ( c o s x ) 2 to ( s i n x ) 2
Then you can easily integrate the expression 1st by substituting t = u followed by taking s i n − 1 u = p :)
I = ∫ 0 sin 2 x sin − 1 ( t ) d t + ∫ 0 cos 2 x cos − 1 ( t ) d t
Let u = sin − 1 ( t ) for the first integral and u = cos − 1 ( t ) for the second integral.
d t = sin 2 u d u and d t = − sin 2 u d u respectively.
I = ∫ 0 x u sin 2 u d u − ∫ 2 π x u sin 2 u d u = ∫ 0 2 π u sin 2 u d u
Using Integration by Parts we get
[ − 2 1 u cos 2 u ] 0 2 π + ∫ 0 2 π cos 2 u d u = 4 π + [ 2 1 sin 2 u ] 0 2 π = 4 π
The question is JEE style and so is the method I provide. Since the answer is independent of x, I choose x=pi/4.Using the property, arc (sin y) +arc (cos y)=pi/2, for any suitable y in the domain,the answer is simply (1/2) times pi/2=pi/4.
I also think there should be an easy way to solve this but I could not find it and come up with the solution here.
Since c is a constant, the integral must not depend on the value of x .
Let x = 4 π
I = ∫ 0 2 1 sin − 1 ( t ) + cos − 1 ( t ) ⋅ d t
( sin − 1 ( t ) + cos − 1 ( t ) = 2 π )
I = ∫ 0 2 1 2 π ⋅ d t
= 4 π
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Let I = ∫ 0 sin 2 x sin − 1 ( t ) d t + ∫ 0 cos 2 x cos − 1 ( t ) d t = I 1 + I 2
Now consider I 1 :
I 1 ⟹ 2 I 1 ⟹ I 1 = ∫ 0 sin 2 x sin − 1 ( t ) d t Let u 2 = t ⟹ 2 u d u = d t = ∫ 0 sin x 2 u sin − 1 ( u ) d u By integration by parts. = 2 u ( u sin − 1 ( u ) + 1 − u 2 ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 sin x − ∫ 0 sin x ( 2 u sin − 1 ( u ) + 2 1 − u 2 ) d u = 2 x sin 2 x + 2 sin x cos x − I 1 − 2 ∫ 0 sin x 1 − u 2 d u Let u = sin θ ⟹ d u = cos θ d θ = 2 x sin 2 x + sin 2 x − 2 ∫ 0 x cos 2 θ d θ = 2 x sin 2 x + sin 2 x − ∫ 0 x ( 1 + cos 2 θ ) d θ = 2 x sin 2 x + sin 2 x − x − 2 1 sin 2 x = x sin 2 x + 4 1 sin 2 x − 2 x
Similarly for I 2 :
I 2 ⟹ 2 I 2 ⟹ I 2 = ∫ 0 cos 2 x cos − 1 ( t ) d t = ∫ 0 cos x 2 u cos − 1 ( u ) d u = 2 u ( u cos − 1 ( u ) − 1 − u 2 ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 cos x − ∫ 0 cos x ( 2 u cos − 1 ( u ) − 2 1 − u 2 ) d u = 2 x cos 2 x − 2 cos x sin x − I 2 + 2 ∫ 0 cos x 1 − u 2 d u = 2 x cos 2 x − sin 2 x + 2 ∫ 0 2 π − x cos 2 θ d θ = 2 x cos 2 x − sin 2 x + ∫ 0 2 π − x ( 1 + cos 2 θ ) d θ = 2 x cos 2 x − sin 2 x + 2 π − x + 2 1 sin 2 x = x cos 2 x − 4 1 sin 2 x + 4 π − 2 x
Therefore, finally we have:
⟹ I = I 1 + I 2 = x sin 2 x + 4 1 sin 2 x − 2 x + x cos 2 x − 4 1 sin 2 x + 4 π − 2 x = 4 π
⟹ c = 4