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Calculus Level 5

π 3 0 1 0 1 0 1 d x d y d z 1 + x 2 y 2 z 2 = ? \large \dfrac{\pi^3}{\displaystyle \int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\dfrac{dx\,dy\,dz}{1 + x^2\,y^2\,z^2}\;}=?


The answer is 32.

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1 solution

First Last
Feb 14, 2018

0 1 0 1 0 1 d x d y d z 1 + x 2 y 2 z 2 = 0 1 0 1 0 1 n = 0 ( 1 ) n ( x y z ) 2 n d x d y d z = \displaystyle\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{dxdydz}{1+x^2y^2z^2}=\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n(xyz)^{2n}dxdydz=

n = 0 ( 1 ) n 0 1 0 1 0 1 ( x y z ) 2 n d x d y d z = n = 0 ( 1 ) n ( 2 n + 1 ) 3 \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\int_0^1\int_0^1\int_0^1(xyz)^{2n}dxdydz=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^3}

Now this is the Dirichlet Beta Function: β ( s ) = n = 0 ( 1 ) n ( 2 n + 1 ) s β ( 3 ) = π 3 32 \displaystyle\beta (s)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^s}\quad\boxed{\beta (3)=\frac{\pi^3}{32}}

Could you also explain how β ( 3 ) \beta(3) is calculated?

Digvijay Singh - 3 years, 3 months ago

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I had only looked it up. Can you direct me to a proof?

First Last - 3 years, 3 months ago

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I couldn't find a proof either.

Digvijay Singh - 3 years, 3 months ago

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@Digvijay Singh You could use the trilogarithm function. The summation is the immaginary part of (Li(i)-Li(-i))/2. (Here Li denotes the trilogarithm function) And we have the functional equation Li(-z)-Li(-1/z)= (-1/6)(ln(z))^3 -1/6(pi^2)(ln(z)) Now substitute z= -i to get the value. And make sure to evaluate only the principal value of ln(i) otherwise it leads to infinite solutions.

Arghyadeep Chatterjee - 7 months ago

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