True or False?
For any positive integer n , 6 n − 1 is divisible by 5.
Note: Use the principle of mathematical induction to verify this.
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Great induction!
How is my solution?
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Great intuition, to be honest.
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Thanks sir!
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@Md Zuhair – Fantastic! It basically makes my initial observation rigorous :)
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@Zach Abueg – Thank you very much sir. Learnt all from the brilliant users and you. You all have a nice way of approaching questions. :)
The nice thing about the induction proof is that it can easily be extended to any integer (positive or otherwise) x - that x^k-1 is divisible by x-1, which also leads to, for all whole x and odd k, x^k+1 is divisible by x+1.
Wow! and wow ! :)
I'm pretty sure your 'simple solution' is the principle of induction. You basically say how we know the first one works and then the next one works thus, they all work.
6 n − 1 ≡ ( 5 + 1 ) n − 1 ≡ 1 n − 1 ≡ 0 (mod 5) ⟹ 6 n − 1 is divisible by 5 for any positive integer n .
We know 6 n = 6 m o d 1 0
6 n − 1 = 5 m o d 1 0
6 n − 1 always ends with a 5 as per our proof. So 6 n − 1 is always divisible by 5.
Good solution!
Exactly, I do in the same way
Why is it so obvious that 'We know that 6^n = 6 mod 10'. It's not obvious to me. Regards, David
A simple approach may save your time. Here it goes, 6 n mod 5 will always return 1 as remainder. For the above given question (1-1) mod 5 =0
A simpler proof.. for any positive integer, the last digit of 6^n is 6(n>0) So (6^n-1) must be dividable by 5..
note that 1 is identical to 1^n. So the question becomes 'is (6^n - 1^n) divisible by 5 for all n. now (6^n - 1^n) = (6 - 1) x [6^(n-1) + 6^(n-2) + ........ + 6 + 1). So it is divisible by (6 - 1) i.e. 5! Regards, David
All powers of 6 ands by 6 so 6 n − 1 always and by 5, and so it is divisible by 5. t r u e
We know the cyclicity of 6 is 1 .
So whatever power 6 is raised to, i.e, 6 n , will always end with 6 for all positive integral values of n
So 6 - 1 = 5
Hence 6 n − 1 will always end with 5 and hence divisible by 5
6 n − 1 = ( 6 − 1 ) × ( 6 n − 1 + 6 n − 2 + 6 n − 3 + ⋯ + 6 2 + 6 1 + 1 )
by a telescoping series expansion. Hence 6 n − 1 is divisible by (6-1)=5.
Because 6 to any power has a units digit of six (this due to the fact that 6 ∗ 6 has this property and can be confirmed with basic modular arithmetic), we can subtract one from the number (leaving us with a units digit of 6 − 1 = 5 which makes the whole number divisible by 5 (the divisibility rule for 5).
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Before the proof by induction, perhaps a simpler proof:
We might observe that powers of 6 always end in 6 , so the last digit of 6 n − 1 will always be 5 , which satisfies the divisibility rule for 5 .
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1 . Show that the base case n = 1 is true.
P ( 1 ) : 6 1 − 1 = 5 ⟹ 5 ∣ 5 ✓
2 . Assume 5 ∣ 6 n − 1 ∀ n ∈ N .
6 k − 1 6 ( 6 k − 1 ) 6 k + 1 − 6 6 k + 1 − 1 ⟹ ( 6 k + 1 − 1 ) − ( 6 k + 1 − 6 ) ⟹ 5 = 5 a = 6 ( 5 a ) = 5 ( 6 a ) = 5 b = 5 c = 5 ( b − c ) = 5 d = 5 d ✓ Multiply both sides by 6 Now prove for n = k + 1 If 5 ∣ a and 5 ∣ b , then 5 ∣ a − b Thus, it is true for n = k + 1
3 . Since P ( n ) is true for n = 1 and n = k + 1 , it is true for all n : 5 ∣ 6 n − 1 ∀ n ∈ N .