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You're right to say that the concern with this is dealing with the limits at infinity. The accurate way to deal with this, is to take a → − ∞ , b → ∞ lim ∫ a b f d x .
There are some cases (like with ∫ x ), where the lim k → ∞ ∫ − k k will yield a result, but the stronger definition given above will not.
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I have modified my solution. Look good now?
When you integrate, wouldn't it be a constant instead of 0?
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When you do the FTC, you'll notice that the constants cancel out.
We are integrating nothing. There are nothing under area; thus, the integral is definitely 0.
∫ − ∞ ∞ 0 d x = 0 ∫ − ∞ ∞ 1 d x = 0 ( x ∣ − ∞ ∞ ) = 0
The potential problem I see with this is, when you take the limit as x goes to infinity, you're getting an indeterminate form when you do zero times (infinity plus infinity). Especially, if you do the order of operations, what goes in the parenthesis is done first.
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Agreed.
To spell it out further, since [ x ] − ∞ ∞ = ∞ , we now have the indeterminate form 0 × ∞ .
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Taking elementary math rules, you get '0'. Here infinity is just a large number not 0 1
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@Viki Zeta – That's the point. You have to spell out exactly what it means, as in Hobart's solution. In it's current version using ∞ , you run into an indeterminate form.
As we know, integration of constant is variable and integration of 0 is constant. So if we Integrate 0 (don't think about limits) with respect to any variable we get a constant value right. How can u say it is zero. Pls clarify me.
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Note that we have a definite integral with given limits, and not an indefinite integral (which involves a +C).
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Because we have improper integral, I will rewrite as a → − ∞ , b → ∞ lim ∫ a b 0 d x . By integrating and applying the FTC, we get
a → − ∞ , b → ∞ lim 0 ∣ a b = a → − ∞ , b → ∞ lim ( 0 − 0 ) = 0 .