r = 0 ∑ 1 6 ( − 1 ) r ( r 2 4 ) = ( m n )
If the equation above holds true for integers m and n with m < 1 0 . Find the value of m + n + ⌊ 2 m ⌋ + ⌊ 2 n ⌋ + m n + n m
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You don't need the ∞ after the three dots. Just the three dots will do. It could mean the value is infinite at the end. Do read writings by others in Brilliant.
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Sure sir. Did you also used Taylor series? Or you used recursion?
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I meant ( 1 + x ) − 1 = 1 − x + x 2 − x 3 + ⋯ will do no need the ∞ at the back.
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@Chew-Seong Cheong – I know what you meant sir. Actually what I asked above was, How did you approached the problem. Using taylor series or using recursion.
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@Md Zuhair – I solved it numerically using guess work. Trying out now with your suggestion.
@Md Zuhair We can also use Pascal's Identity .The terms get cancelled telescopically and we are left with ( 1 6 2 3 )
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Relevant wiki: Binomial Theorem - Expansions - Basic
Hint
If you guys want, I can upload the full solution, Here is a bit hint,
Use this result
( 1 + x ) − 1 = 1 − x + x 2 − x 3 + . . .
And multiply it with the Binomial that is ( 1 + x ) 2 4 . Now check for some coefficient which will give you this answer!
For those, Who tried the hint but couldnt solve .
Here we go,
So here we proceed.
Our Taylor series is ( 1 + x ) − 1 = 1 − x + x 2 − x 3 . . .
And ( 1 + x ) 2 4 = ( 0 2 4 ) + ( 1 2 4 ) x + . . . . ( 1 6 2 4 ) x 1 6 + . . . + ( 2 4 2 4 ) x 2 4
Now lets find r = 0 ∑ 1 6 ( − 1 ) r ( r 2 4 ) = ?
Lets say coeff. of x 1 6 in ( 1 + x ) 2 4 = ( 1 6 2 4 ) x 1 6 .
Now lets multiply ( 1 + x ) − 1 with ( 1 + x ) 2 4 and try to find out the coeff. of x 1 6 , Because while multiplying... ( k 2 4 ) x 1 6 will go with the first term of the taylor series and so on . And if you check the coeff. of x 1 6 , You will get the answer.
So Coeff. of x 1 6 in ( 1 + x ) 2 3 = ( 1 6 2 3 ) .
Now you can find the rest of answer easily!