∫ 0 π k = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 k + 1 sin ( x ( 2 k + 1 ) ) d x = b π a ,
where a and b are integers. Find 1 0 a + b .
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Can you justify the exchange of summation and integral in the first step?
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Fubini theorem justifies that
They are both sums. Therefore intrrchangeable. You may demostrate that using Riemans sums.
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Not really!
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@Abhishek Sinha – You know that both the integral and integral and sum converge - the sun is known to converge (see http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/13490/proving-that-the-sequence-f-nx-sum-limits-k-1n-frac-sinkxk-is), and the integral does too since it has finite limits and is finite at all points between 0 and pi. Then you can freely interchange the summation and integral, since the integral of f(x) + g(x) is the integral of f(x) plus the integral of g(x)
afaik, you can interchange the sum and integral if the sum is uniformly convergent
Exactly as me!
u can do this without interchanging sum and integral
Yes. You can just integrate term by term to get the same series as above.
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Set a=2k+1 (a becomes and odd number). And change the integral with the sumation: k = 1 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 π a sin ( a x ) d x = k = 1 ∑ ∞ [ − a 2 cos ( a x ) ] 0 π = k = 1 ∑ ∞ a 2 2 = 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k + 1 ) 2 1
Knowing that: k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 2 1 = 6 π 2 The sum of the inverse square off even integers is easy to calculate: k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k ) 2 1 = 4 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 2 1 = 4 1 6 π 2 = 2 4 π 2 and: k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k + 1 ) 2 1 = k = 1 ∑ ∞ k 2 1 − k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k ) 2 1 = 6 π 2 − 2 4 π 2 = 8 π 2
Therefore the result is: 4 π 2
and 10a+b = 24