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Logic Level 5

1 2 3 4 = 1000 \LARGE 1 \ \ \ \ \ 2 \ \ \ \ \ 3 \ \ \ \ \ 4 \ \ = \ \ 1000

Without touching the right side of the equation, find a way to make the equation above true. You are only allowed to use mathematical operators like addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and parenthesis, percentage, and factorials only.

With your answer, define N N as the least amount of mathematical operators used. Find N N .

Details and Assumptions :

  • As an explicit example, if the equation 1 ÷ ( 2 + 3 ) 4 ! = 1000 1 \div (2 + 3)^{4!}= 1000 is true, then you have used 4 operators: one division, one addition, one parenthesis, one factorial. In this case, N = 4 N=4 .

  • You can combine the digits as well. i.e.: 12 + 34 12 +34 .

  • You must keep the digits in order (from left to right). 1 + 2 + 3 × 4 1+2+3\times4 is valid while 1 + 2 4 ÷ 3 1+2-4\div3 is not valid.

  • BODMAS applied.

  • You need a number before the percentage sign. For example. 1234 + % 1234 + \% is invalid while 123 + 4 % 123 + 4\% is valid.

  • Exponentiation is allowed.


The answer is 5.

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4 solutions

( 1 % ) 2 × 3 ÷ 4 \Huge (1\%)^{-2\times 3\div4}

Moderator note:

Nicely done. I've changed the answer from 7 to 5. Those who answered 5 will be marked correct.

@Svatejas Shivakumar , we really liked your comment, and have converted it into a solution. If you subscribe to this solution, you will receive notifications about future comments.

Brilliant Mathematics Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago

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Please add exponentiation to the list of operators. As I read the description it is not allowed.

Maria Kozlowska - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Thanks. I've updated the problem statement.

Brilliant Mathematics Staff - 5 years, 3 months ago

That's pretty amazing :)

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago

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Calvin Lin That is indeed a pretty amazing solution. But don't you think the problem would be better if we assign a distinct number to each operation and ask what the smallest number can be formed by entering the number assigned to each operation in order of the solution. For example for the solution above, if addition is assigned as 1 ,subtraction as 2, multiplication as 3, division as 4, parentheses as 5, percentage as 6 and factorials as 7,the answer would be 56234.

Mathew Smith - 5 years, 11 months ago

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Of course, there are multiple ways of asking the question. We do not have full control over the answer format that someone decides to post the problem in.

Furthermore, problems like this would often allow for multiple answers, whereas we currently only accept 1 value.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago

Awesome! Upvoted!!

Dhruv Bhasin - 5 years, 8 months ago

I tried 1/((2+3)%*sqrt(4)%) Yeah, it breaks some rules, and it's not the minimum, but I'm happy enough to have found something :P

Alex Li - 4 years, 10 months ago

I am not getting it how 100^(2/3)=1000

avinash deshmukh - 4 years, 4 months ago

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Oh, that's a great observation!

Can you post a similar problem, just remove the 4?

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 3 months ago

1%=1/100. (1/100)^(-3/2)=100^(2/3)

avinash deshmukh - 4 years, 4 months ago

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(1/100)^(-3/2)=(1/100)^(2/3)=100^(-2/3)=100^(3/2)=1000

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 4 months ago

(12/.3)/4%

That's a good example, but the decimal point isn't a valid operation.

Also, even if it was, I don't think ".3" will count as a valid number.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago
Adam Wang
Jan 24, 2016

My solution: 1/(((2*3+4)%)%)= 1000

It states in the directions "You need a number before the percentage sign. For example. 1234+ % is invalid while 123 +4% is valid." Your second percent doesn't have a numerical value. In this case (with the way the problem was worded of course) % is not an acceptable operation. It is used instead to turn a number into a smaller value. 10%% doesn't work.

Kyle Al-Rawi - 4 years, 11 months ago
Pi Han Goh
Jun 6, 2015

( ( 1 + 2 ) ! ) ! ÷ ( 3 × 4 ! ) % \Huge ((1+2)!)! \div (3\times 4!)\%

Moderator note:

This solution has been marked wrong.

Oh, if decimal points are allowed, and count as an operator, we can do

1.2 ÷ 3 % ÷ 4 % 1.2 \div 3\% \div 4\%

That's 5!

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

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Haha nice!

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

How about 1 ÷ ( ( 2 × 3 + 4 ) 1÷((2×3+4) % ) ) %? This results in N = 7 N=7

Dhruv Bhasin - 6 years ago

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Oh no!!!! I thought I ran through all possible scenarios!!

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

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Is 1%% allowed? IE in Dhruv's solution, can we just do

1 ÷ ( 2 × 3 + 4 ) % % 1 \div (2 \times 3 + 4 ) \% \% ?

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

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@Calvin Lin Sigh.... yes. (I'm curious why I didn't receive notification for this).

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

Great job!! I've updated the answer to 7.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

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Thanks. But don't you guys think that we are still short of a proof?

I mean there can be values of N N still less than 7 7 .

Dhruv Bhasin - 6 years ago

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@Dhruv Bhasin Of course. The proof part is the hard part of this type of question, and I think that we would have to run through every single possibility.

I know that 10 is an incorrect answer, and so 7 is much more likely to be correct, hence I've updated the answer to 7. If someone else comes along with a possibility for 5, then I would update it too.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

Not sure how this should really look, but I found 1%^-2 ÷ (3!+4) = 1,000. Still N=7 though.

Christopher Black - 6 years ago

What about 1 ÷ 2 % ( 3 ! 4 ) 1\div 2\%(3!-4) , which looks like to me 5 operators?

Michael Mendrin - 6 years ago

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Your operation is not clear, do you mean a ÷ b c = a ÷ b ÷ c a \div bc = a \div b \div c or a ÷ ( b × c ) a \div (b\times c) ? Either way, I'm not getting 1000 as the answer.

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

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I think he means 1 ÷ 2 % × ( 3 ! 4 ) = 100 1 \div 2 \% \times ( 3 ! - 4) = 100 .

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

I think according to BODMAS rules, first all the percentages of numbers and factorials of numbers are evaluated, so that 2% becomes 0.02 and 3! becomes 6, then what's parentheses are evaluated, so that (6-4) becomes 2, and then products and divisions are done. If this last stage is done without further parentheses, then order doesn't matter, we have (1)(1/0.02)(2)=100. I think if you plugged this into any scientific calculator, such as the Google calculator, as expressed, that's the result you'll get.

Michael Mendrin - 6 years ago

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@Michael Mendrin But you're supposed to get 1000.

Additionally, I think that the multiplication sign would be needed.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

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@Calvin Lin Yes, I'm supposed to get 1000, not 100, and I did this like 3 am in the morning. Scratch that. I woke up because my arm went to sleep. Does that make any sense?

Michael Mendrin - 6 years ago

Hm, how about ( 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 ) ÷ % (1+2+3+4) \div \% ?

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

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You need a number before the percentage sign isn't it?

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

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Dunno......

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

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@Calvin Lin To clear doubts, I've added the clarifications in my details and assumptions. To be honest, this is the first time I've seen a percentage sign without a number in front of it.

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

This is silly.

( ( 1 + 4 ) × 2 ) 3 ((1+4)\times 2) ^3

My final answer is 4.

Albert Wen - 6 years ago

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You must keep the digits in order

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

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Oh. Huh. That's new to me.

Albert Wen - 5 years, 11 months ago

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