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Calculus Level 3

0 t 8 e t d t = ? \large \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{8} e^{-t} \, dt = \, ?


The answer is 40320.

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5 solutions

0 t n e t d t = n ! P r o o f a s b e l o w . Go on applying Integration by Parts, 0 t n e t d t = 0 t n d { e t } = e t t n + n 0 t n 1 d { e t } 0 t 8 e t d t = i = 1 8 ( 1 ) i i ! t 9 i e t 0 8 ! 0 e t d t = 8 ! e t 0 = 40320 Sumation reduces to 0. \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{n} e^{-t} dt = n!\\ Proof~as~below.\\ \text{Go on applying Integration by Parts, }\\ \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{n} e^{-t} dt =-~ \int_0^\infty t^{n} d\{e^{-t} \} \\ =-~e^{-t} t^n + \displaystyle n*\int_0^\infty t^{n-1}d\{e^{-t} \} \\ \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{8} e^{-t} dt \\\displaystyle =\sum_{i=1}^8 (-1)^i*i!* t^{9-i} *e^{-t} {\Huge|}_0^\infty -8!\int_0^\infty e^{-t} dt \\ =8!*e^{-t} {\Huge|}_0^\infty =40320 ~~~~ \text{Sumation reduces to 0.}

Yup. Can I include this in my solution as a proof instead of typing them again?

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Yes. You are welcome to do so.

Niranjan Khanderia - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Thank you!

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Kishore S. Shenoy Sorry. I had missed in the last two lines. Please make correction.
It is 0 t 8 e t d t = i = 1 8 ( 1 ) i i ! t 9 i e t 0 8 ! 0 e t d t = 8 ! e t 0 = 40320 Sumation reduces to 0. \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{8} e^{-t} dt \\\displaystyle =\sum_{i=1}^8 (-1)^i*i!* t^{9-i} *e^{-t} {\Huge|}_0^\infty -8!\int_0^\infty e^{-t} dt \\ =8!*e^{-t} {\Huge|}_0^\infty =40320 ~~~~ \text{Sumation reduces to 0.}

Niranjan Khanderia - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Niranjan Khanderia Well, when you make bounds, you should say t = 0 t = 0 to t = t = \infty

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Niranjan Khanderia You can use

Define I n = 0 t n e t d t = 0 t n d ( e t ) = e t t n 0 + n 0 t n 1 e t d t = n I n 1 I n = n ! \begin{aligned}\text{Define }I_n &= \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{n} e^{-t} \mathrm{d} t \\&=-~ \int_0^\infty t^{n} \mathrm{d}\left(e^{-t} \right) \\ &=-~e^{-t} t^n {\Large|}_0^{\infty}+ \displaystyle n\cdot\int_0^\infty t^{n-1}e^{-t}\mathrm{d}t \\ &= n \cdot I_{n-1}\\ \Rightarrow I_n &= n!\\ \end{aligned}

as a proof. Anyway thanks ¨ \ddot\smile

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Kishore S. Shenoy Thanks. On second thought I think you have missed the summation. Though the summation reduces to zero, there are n terms, each redusing to zero with constants varying from n for first, (n) * (n-1) for the second etc. n! For the last, alternating with negative sign.

Niranjan Khanderia - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Niranjan Khanderia Oh, it's a typo! corrected!

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago

Good solution...!

Sayandeep Ghosh - 5 years, 3 months ago

Take the Laplace transform of t^8 --> 8! / s^9
set s=1
Therefore the result is 8! = 40320

Jose Sacramento
Feb 21, 2016

Kishore S. Shenoy
Aug 23, 2015

Through Integration by parts, we can get that 0 t n e t d t = n ! 0 t 8 e t d t = 8 ! = 40320 \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{n} e^{-t} dt = n!\\ \begin{aligned}\Rightarrow \int_0^\infty t^{8} e^{-t} dt &= 8!\\ &=\boxed{40320}\end{aligned}

Proof:

Applying Integration by Parts,

Define I n = 0 t n e t d t = 0 t n d ( e t ) = e t t n 0 + n 0 t n 1 e t d t = 0 + n 0 t n 1 e t d t = n I n 1 I n = n ! \begin{aligned}\text{Define }I_n &= \displaystyle \int_0^\infty t^{n} e^{-t} \mathrm{d} t \\&=-~ \int_0^\infty t^{n} \mathrm{d}\left(e^{-t} \right) \\ &=-~e^{-t} t^n {\Large|}_0^{\infty}+ \displaystyle n\cdot\int_0^\infty t^{n-1}e^{-t}\mathrm{d}t \\&= 0 +n\cdot\int_0^\infty t^{n-1}e^{-t}\mathrm{d}t\\ &= n \cdot I_{n-1}\\ \Rightarrow I_n &= n!\\ \end{aligned}

Thus making it 8 ! = 40320 8!=\boxed{40320}

Moderator note:

Why is the first line true?

Why is the first line true?

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 9 months ago

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No you mean I should prove it? Integration by parts will do that right?

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Right. At the very least, state that. All that you have written is a claim, without any backing. How do we know that it is true?

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Calvin Lin Done! I think now I'm clear!

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 9 months ago
展豪 張
Mar 15, 2016

By recognizing it as Γ ( 9 ) \Gamma(9) , the answer is 8 ! = 40320 8!=40320 .

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