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Algebra Level 3

Let f ( x ) f(x) denote a 1 0 th 10^\text{th} -degree polynomial such that f ( x ) = 10 f(x) = 10 has roots x = 1 , 2 , 3 , , 10 x=1,2,3,\ldots,10 and f ( x ) f(x) has a constant term of 10 ! 10! . Find f ( 11 ) f(11) .


Bonus: Generalize this.


The answer is 3628800.

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4 solutions

Ivan Koswara
Feb 27, 2016

f ( x ) 10 f(x) - 10 is a 10th degree polynomial that has roots 1 , 2 , 3 , , 10 1, 2, 3, \ldots, 10 . Since the roots are symmetric over the line x = 5.5 x = 5.5 , the whole polynomial is also symmetric over the same line. (Proof below.) Thus f ( 11 ) = f ( 5.5 + 5.5 ) = f ( 5.5 5.5 ) = f ( 0 ) = 10 ! = 3628800 f(11) = f(5.5 + 5.5) = f(5.5 - 5.5) = f(0) = 10! = \boxed{3628800} , where the equality f ( 5.5 + x ) = f ( 5.5 x ) f(5.5 + x) = f(5.5 - x) is because the symmetry.


Proof of this lemma:

Lemma : If n n is an even integer, and f ( x ) f(x) is an n n th degree polynomial that has roots a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , , a n a_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots, a_n that are symmetric over the line x = b x = b , then the whole polynomial is symmetric over the line x = b x = b .

Proof : It suffices to prove it for b = 0 b = 0 , since we can consider the polynomial f ( x + b ) f(x+b) with roots a 1 b , a 2 b , , a n b a_1-b, a_2-b, \ldots, a_n-b that are now symmetric over the line x = 0 x = 0 . Without loss of generality assume that a 1 < a 2 < a 3 < < a n a_1 < a_2 < a_3 < \ldots < a_n . Then a 1 = a n , a 2 = a n 1 , a_1 = -a_n, a_2 = -a_{n-1}, \ldots .

We can factor f ( x ) = c ( x a 1 ) ( x a 2 ) ( x a n ) = c ( x + a n ) ( x a n ) ( x + a n 1 ) ( x a n 1 ) = c ( x 2 a n 2 ) ( x 2 a n 1 2 ) f(x) = c(x - a_1)(x - a_2)\ldots(x - a_n) = c(x + a_n)(x - a_n)(x + a_{n-1})(x - a_{n-1}) \ldots = c(x^2 - a_n^2)(x^2 - a_{n-1}^2) \ldots . Now we can clearly see that f ( x ) f(x) is even, since the variable x x always appears as x 2 x^2 , and thus f ( x ) = f ( x ) f(-x) = f(x) for all x x . An even polynomial is just a polynomial that is symmetric over the line x = 0 x = 0 , proving the claim.

Hey, that's cheating! You're supposed to do interpolation, not some symmetry approach!

ahahahah Just kidding! Thank you! +1

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 3 months ago

how can you prove f(0)=10! ?

Joel Yip - 5 years, 3 months ago

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f ( 0 ) f(0) is the constant term of f f (because every term with x x disappears).

Ivan Koswara - 5 years, 3 months ago
Manuel Kahayon
Feb 27, 2016

f ( x ) 10 = a ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) ( x 3 ) ( x 4 ) ( x 5 ) ( . . . ) f(x)-10= a(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(...)

f ( x ) = a ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) ( x 3 ) ( x 4 ) ( x 5 ) ( . . . ) + 10 f(x)= a(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(...)+10

Since f ( x ) f(x) has constant term of 10!, a 10 ! + 10 = 10 ! a*10!+10 = 10!

Then, we have f ( 11 ) = a ( 11 1 ) ( 11 2 ) . . . + 10 f(11) = a(11-1)(11-2)...+10

f ( 11 ) = a 10 ! + 10 f(11) = a*10!+10

Since a 10 ! + 10 = 10 ! a*10!+10 = 10! ,

f ( 11 ) = 10 ! = 3628800 f(11) = 10! = \boxed {3628800}

Woah! That's quick! Thank you!

By the way, there's a collaboration later where we discuss how to write up this wiki page . Are you interested in joining?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 3 months ago

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I'm sorry, but I really don't think I'll be of any help...

Actually, it's already finished, right...?

Manuel Kahayon - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Yes, just finished like 6 hours ago.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 3 months ago

Hey I didn't get your third step. Can u please explain???

abc xyz - 5 years, 3 months ago

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f ( x ) = a ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) ( x 3 ) . . . ( x 10 ) + 10 f(x) = a(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)...(x-10) +10

Since in all polynomials, the constant term is f(0), then

f ( 0 ) = a ( 0 1 ) ( 0 2 ) ( 0 3 ) . . . ( 0 10 ) + 10 f(0) = a(0-1)(0-2)(0-3)...(0-10)+10

f ( 0 ) = a 10 ! + 10 f(0) = a*10! +10

Which is the constant term.

Manuel Kahayon - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Got it !!! Thanks a LOT!!!

abc xyz - 5 years, 3 months ago

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@Abc Xyz Happy to help <3

Manuel Kahayon - 5 years, 3 months ago

I have a doubt. You have taken a a as the coefficient ,so that the third line is not as 10 = 0 10=0 as the 10 ! 10! cancels out. What is the necessity of coefficient a a . Please explain

Chirayu Bhardwaj - 5 years, 3 months ago

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The 10 ! 10! does not cancel out, the * sign in a 10 ! a*10! denotes multiplication.

Also, we still do not know the leading coefficient of the polynomial, so we denote the leading coefficient by a.

Manuel Kahayon - 5 years, 3 months ago

Exactly!!!! I did the same

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 1 month ago
Yoga Nugraha
Aug 21, 2016

See the title, find the most unique number, try it ._.

Fahim Saikat
Feb 29, 2016

as the polynomial is f(x)=(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)...(x-10) =>10![putting x=11]

Incorrect. You will get the correct value of f(11), but you will not get the correct value for f(12), f(13), f(14), ...

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 3 months ago

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