JEE Corner (Mains +Advanced) # 2

Geometry Level 3

Let f : A B f: A \rightarrow B and is given that f ( x ) = log 2 ( ( cos ( π x ) sin ( π x ) ) ( cos ( π x ) + sin ( π x ) ) 1 + 2 ) f(x) =\log_2 \left (\sqrt{(\cos(\pi x) - \sin(\pi x) )(\cos(\pi x) + \sin(\pi x) ) - 1 } + 2 \right) is real and g : A C g: A \rightarrow C such that g ( x ) = x { x } g(x) = \lfloor x \rfloor ^{\{ x \} } . Find the range of g ( x ) g(x) .

Note that { x } \{x\} denote the fractional part of x x .

{Set Of Integers} {1} Function f(x) Is Not Defined {0,1} Function g(x) Is Not Defined

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Devarsh Wali
Jun 27, 2015

Since f(x) is defined from Set A to Set B and g(x) is defined from Set A to Set C which implies that the domain of f(x) and g(x) is same.So,if we find out the domain of f(x) then we could use that domain to find the range of g(x). Now Domain of f(x) is :-

But just because a function has a point where it is undefined doesn't mean it doesn't have range, right? Like the range of f ( x ) = 1 x f(x)=\frac{1}{x} would be ( , 0 ) ( 0 , ) (-\infty,0) \cup (0,\infty) even though it is undefined at x = 0 x=0

Jason Zou - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

Just a point, 1 0 \frac{1}{0} is not undefined. It's infinity. 0 0 0^0 is one of the undefined forms, and thus, it can not be included in the range.

Kushashwa Ravi Shrimali - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

I am not saying that 0 0 0^0 should be included in the range though. However, we also have 1 0 , 2 0 , = 1 1^0, 2^0, \ldots=1 which are defined and thus should be included in the range.

Jason Zou - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

@Jason Zou @Kushashwa Ravi Shrimali @Jason Zou guys, in response to both of you, a function is defined when all the elements of its domain has an image or range but here the domain of g(x) is set of integers in which when we put 0 from the domain of g(x) in the function g(x) it doesn't gives any image as 0^0 is undetermined hence g(x) is not a defined function since it is discontinuous at x=0

Devarsh Wali - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

@Devarsh Wali Ok, thanks for the clarification.

Jason Zou - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

@Jason Zou my pleasure

Devarsh Wali - 5 years, 11 months ago

for finding the domain and range of functions 1/0 is undefined i mean to say that in f(x)=1/x domain is R-{0} i.e., x can't take the value of x=0

Devarsh Wali - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

@Devarsh Wali I see what you mean. I was a bit misguided, but thanks for clarification. Cheers!

Kushashwa Ravi Shrimali - 5 years, 11 months ago

Log in to reply

@Kushashwa Ravi Shrimali my pleasure.. :) cheers!

Devarsh Wali - 5 years, 11 months ago

bro here domain of f(x) is R-{0} and hence is also not having any value for x=0 hence it is a defined function.

Devarsh Wali - 5 years, 11 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...