Find the last two digits of 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 .
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Use Carmichael's function . λ ( 1 0 0 ) = lcm ( λ ( 2 5 ) , λ ( 4 ) ) = lcm ( 2 0 , 2 ) = 2 0 . Thus 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 ≡ 7 0 − 3 0 = 1 − 1 = 0 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) .
Another way: 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 = 4 ( 7 9 9 + 7 9 8 3 1 + ⋯ + 3 9 9 ) . What is left to prove is that 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 ≡ 0 ( m o d 2 5 ) , but this is simple since ϕ ( 2 5 ) = 2 0 .
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Cool. I hadn't heard of Carmichael's function before. Good to know. :)
How is this good for two digits. Should it not be only the last digit is 0?
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Since 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 ≡ 0 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) we know that 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 is divisible by 1 0 0 , and thus its last two digits must be 0 0 .
How do you know that Euler's Function of 100 is 40? Also, how to find Euler's Function value of big numbers like, say, 1000? Please help.
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We can use the fact that Euler's totient function is multiplicative, i.e., if m , n are coprime, then ϕ ( m n ) = ϕ ( m ) ∗ ϕ ( n ) .
So as 1 0 0 = 4 ∗ 2 5 and g c d ( 4 , 2 5 ) = 1 we know that ϕ ( 1 0 0 ) = ϕ ( 4 ) ∗ ϕ ( 2 5 ) .
Next, we can use the fact that for p prime, ϕ ( p k ) = p k − p k − 1 . Then
ϕ ( 4 ) = ϕ ( 2 2 ) = 2 2 − 2 1 = 2 and ϕ ( 2 5 ) = ϕ ( 5 2 ) = 5 2 − 5 1 = 2 0 .
We can thus conclude that ϕ ( 1 0 0 ) = 2 ∗ 2 0 = 4 0 .
With 1 0 0 0 = 2 3 ∗ 5 3 we would have
ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) = ϕ ( 2 3 ) ∗ ϕ ( 5 3 ) = ( 2 3 − 2 2 ) ( 5 3 − 5 2 ) = 4 ∗ 1 0 0 = 4 0 0 .
So one method to determine ϕ ( n ) is to first decompose n into its prime factors and then use the two formulas mentioned above to make the final calculation. This method can be summarized by Euler's product formula, (proof provided in the aforementioned link),
ϕ ( n ) = n p ∣ n ∏ ( 1 − p 1 ) .
As an example, with n = 1 0 0 0 this formula gives us that
ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) = 1 0 0 0 ∗ ( 1 − 2 1 ) ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 1 0 0 0 ∗ 2 1 ∗ 5 4 = 4 0 0 ,
in agreement with our previous result.
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Thank you very much, sir.
I used practically the same approach. For those that don't know Euler's theorem, they could of kept on calculating powers of to get 3^10 is equivalent to 7^2 mod(100), which would of lead to 3^100 is equivalent to 1 mod (100).
Till now I still don't really understand euler's theorem so I solved this question by recognising the patterns of 3 n and 7 n . Thats another way...
Please explain the step: 4 3 5 ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 )
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Oh, sorry, that was a typo; it should be 4 3 4 ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) . As this is a small power we could just multiply it out by hand. Noting that 4 3 2 = 1 8 4 9 , we would have that
4 3 4 ≡ 4 9 2 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) since 4 9 2 = 2 4 0 1 .
For this last step we could also have noted that
4 9 2 = ( 5 0 − 1 ) 2 = 5 0 2 − 2 ∗ 5 0 + 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) .
Or we could have directly used the binomial expansion for 4 3 4 as follows:
4 3 4 = ( 5 0 − 7 ) 4 = 5 0 4 − 4 ∗ 5 0 3 ∗ 7 + 6 ∗ 5 0 2 ∗ 7 2 − 4 ∗ 5 0 ∗ 7 3 + 7 4 ≡ 7 4 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) .
So there are a number of ways to make this calculation. :)
@Brian Charlesworth Another way would be a N ≡ 0 ( m o d N )
Wait, why is it that you used 3^5 for 3, but 7^4 for 7?
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We are free to choose powers that we think will make the calculation easiest, so there is no requirement to choose the same power in each case. Having said that, and now that you mention it, I could have gone with a binomial expansion in the following way:
3 2 0 = ( 3 4 ) 5 = 8 1 5 = ( 8 0 + 1 ) 5 = 8 0 5 + 5 ∗ 8 0 4 + 1 0 ∗ 8 0 3 + 1 0 ∗ 8 0 2 + 5 ∗ 8 0 + 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) ,
since all the terms in the expansion except for 1 are divisible by 1 0 0 .
How is this good for two digits. Should it not be only the last digit is 0?
One can also use the binomial theorem. (10-3)^100 - 3^100 = 100n + 3^100 - 3^100 =100n (where n is an integer)
The last digit is asked so v shall go by finding out the last digit 7 powers goes by the last digits 7,9,3,1, 7,9,3,1 ..... And 3powers goes as 3,9,7,1 3,9,7,1... So 100/4 is divisible so it is of order 4 so 1-1 = zero
(7^4)25-(3^4)25=(1)^25-(1)^25=0 according to Euler's Theorem.
Reply to Mathh Mathh
I loved your Carmichael function solution.
Note, though that
λ [ 4 ] = 2
We have that 7 1 0 ≡ 4 9 m o d 1 0 0 , and also 3 1 0 ≡ 4 9 m o d 1 0 0 . Then we need the solution to 4 9 1 0 − 4 9 1 0 m o d 1 0 0 , which is then equivalent to 0 m o d 1 0 0 , which yields the answer of 0.
I used an inefficient way. I just constructed a table and found a pattern.
Now C'mon Calvin Lin. Just by looking at the 6 it's obvious that the 6 multiplied by 2 ends in 2. Was this a joke ?
Since we have to find the last digit of the crazy number (is that so?), let us work mod 10 :
We have,
7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 = ( − 3 ) 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 = 3 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 = 0 mod 10
And hence the answer!
You were lucky. The question asked last two digits, so we need to work modulo 100 instead.
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hey Satvik how did you get it?I just made a pattern but I just got another method!
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7 4 = 2 4 0 1 ≡ 1 m o d 1 0 0 , so 7 1 0 0 = ( 7 4 ) 2 5 ≡ 1 m o d 1 0 0 .
To find 3 1 0 0 m o d 1 0 0 we can use Euler's Theorem . Since ϕ ( 1 0 0 ) = 4 0 we know that 3 4 0 ≡ 1 m o d 1 0 0 and thus 3 1 0 0 ≡ 3 2 0 m o d 1 0 0 .
Now 3 5 = 2 4 3 ≡ 4 3 m o d 1 0 0 , so 3 2 0 ≡ 4 3 4 ≡ 1 m o d 1 0 0 , and so 7 1 0 0 − 3 1 0 0 ≡ 0 m o d 1 0 0 , i.e., the last two digits are 0 0 .
(Another approach to this last part is to note that ( 3 2 0 ) 2 = 3 4 0 ≡ 1 m o d 1 0 0 , so 3 2 0 is a solution to the equation x 2 ≡ 1 m o d 1 0 0 , the smallest solution of which is 1 m o d 1 0 0 . However, there are other solutions for x , namely 4 9 , 5 1 and 9 9 .)