A B = lcm ( 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) = lcm ( 1 0 1 0 , 1 0 1 1 , 1 0 1 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 )
Which is true?
Notation:
lcm
(
⋅
)
denotes the
lowest common multiple
function.
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Unless I'm missing something, the arrays in the quiz go from 1...2018 and 1020...2018
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Yes, but if you prove that each of the numbers in C = { 1 , … , 1 0 0 9 } divide some number in D = { 1 0 1 0 , … , 2 0 1 8 } , then it follows that lcm ( D ) = lcm ( C ∪ D ) .
If that's confusing, then think in terms of smaller sets. Consider the sets { 3 , 4 , 6 , 8 } and { 6 , 8 } . If you can show that every number from { 3 , 4 } divides some number from { 6 , 8 } , then it follows that lcm ( 3 , 4 , 6 , 8 ) = lcm ( 6 , 8 ) .
I really dont get it. Like for example, 1009 is a prime number. 2018 is 2*1009. But the least common multiple in set A must have 1009 as one of the factors, but for the set in which there is no 1009; we dont need 1009 to be one of the factors.
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The second set contains 2 0 1 8 , which (as you said) has a factor of 1 0 0 9 .
If this method is confusing, then think of the same methodology, except with smaller sets. For example, think of the sets { 1 , … , 1 0 } and { 6 , … , 1 0 } .
To show that lcm ( 1 , … , 1 0 ) = lcm ( 6 , … , 1 0 ) , you need to show that every number from { 1 , … , 5 } divides some number in { 6 , … , 1 0 } .
First we have that 3 × 2 1 = 6 , 4 × 2 1 = 8 , and 5 × 2 1 = 1 0 . Then we have 2 × 2 2 = 8 . Finally we have 1 × 2 3 = 8 . We can multiply every number in { 1 , … , 5 } by some power of 2 to get a number from { 6 , … , 1 0 } .
Now once you understand that, you can think of larger sets like { 1 , … , 1 2 } and { 7 , … , 1 2 } . Eventually it becomes clear that the same methodology to show divisibility works no matter how large the sets are.
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i am sorry, but I am slow. What about 7. you cant get 7 from the first set. For 2018, we don't need to use the factor 1009; we can just use the factor 2. I am so sorry, but i seriously dont get it.
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@Hazem Salem – But u get a multiple of 7 from the second set!!!
nvm, now i get it
did u half the nos. also in set C.And if so what about 1,2,3??
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See my responses to Hazem and Mike below.
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Ok got it!!!So basically if 2 lcm's have to be equal then one set should be atleast a few multiples of the other set.Right???
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@Erica Phillips – Yes, exactly. What I showed in my solution is that lcm ( 1 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) = lcm ( 1 0 1 0 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) because the numbers { 1 , … , 1 0 0 9 } don't contribute any factors to the LCM.
I'll edit my solution to clarify.
Depart the group in half
19 is a prime number that doesn't divide any element in B
By definition, A ∣ n if and only if x ∣ n for all x = 1 , 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 ; B ∣ n if and only if x ∣ n for all x = 1 0 1 0 , … , 2 0 1 8 .
Since x ∣ A for all x = 1 , 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 , we certainly have that x ∣ A for all x = 1 0 1 0 , … , 2 0 1 8 , so that B ∣ A .
Now let 1 ≤ x ≤ 2 0 1 8 . There exist a unique integer n ≥ 0 such that 1 0 1 0 ≤ 2 n x ≤ 2 0 1 8 . Since x ∣ 2 n x and 2 n x ∣ B we see that x ∣ B . Since this is true for all x = 1 , 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 , we conclude that A ∣ B .
From A ∣ B and B ∣ A it follows that A = B .
But the number 19 is prime and is in A and not in B
From 1 2 1 6 ∣ B and 1 9 ∣ 1 2 1 6 it follows that 1 9 ∣ B .
Let C = { 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 1 0 0 9 } and D = { 1 0 1 0 , 1 0 1 1 , 1 0 1 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 } . Then A = lcm ( C ∪ D ) and B = lcm ( D ) .
Since each element in C multiplied by some power of 2 is already found in D , and D has at least one even number, C has no unique factors to D . Therefore, lcm ( C ∪ D ) = lcm ( D ) , and so A = B .
"Since twice the value of each element in C is already found in D ..."
Not true; 5 0 0 ∈ C but 1 0 0 0 ∈ D .
Oh god i read "1 centimeter" i was completely confused
i really dont get it. Like for example, 1009 is a prime number. 2018 is 2*1009. But the least common multiple in set A must have 1009 as one of the factors, but for the set in which there is no 1009; we dont need 1009 to be one of the factors.
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We do, because that set contains 2 0 1 8 = 2 × 1 0 0 9 .
It should be intuitively clear that any n consecutive positive integers must have a multiple of n among them. However, as a formality, a proof is included at the bottom.
Using this idea, it is immediate that the set B ∗ = { 1 0 1 0 , 1 0 1 1 , 1 0 1 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 } , which contains 1009 consecutive positive integers, must contain a multiple of a for every a ∈ A ∗ = { 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 1 0 0 9 } . Therefore, lcm ( 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) = lcm ( 1 0 1 0 , 1 0 1 1 , 1 0 1 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) .
Here's the promised proof.
Claim: Every sequence of n consecutive positive integers contains a multiple of n .
Proof: Let t be the largest term in the sequence. If n ∣ t then we're done.
If not, let t ≡ r ( m o d n ) for some r ∈ { 1 , 2 , … , n − 1 } . Then t − r must be a member of the sequence, and clearly n ∣ t − r .
Mathematica
LCM @@ Range@2018 == LCM @@ Range[1010, 2018]
yelds True
Awesome programming, but I think this is a question on math, not programming. I wish I knew how to program that though.
The greatest prime number with 2018 in both sets is 2017 so A = 2 0 1 7 × 2 0 1 8 = B
But how you proved that they are equal
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Good question!
As I see it, Ti Tou's answer is too simplistic. The fact is that B (1010 - 2018) also contains all primes between 1 - 2010 (part of A), with 1009 being the largest in the latter set. So 2x1009 is 2018 and still in B. The lcm is defined by the number of primes in the list. If B had started from 1014 - 2018 the outcome would be different because then 1013 (prime) would not be in B meaning A > B
Sorry for the messy explanation :)
The difference in the LCM's are caused by the prime numbers in the list. B contains the same prime numbers as A from 1013 to 2017. And if not, the prime numbers appear as factors of other numbers in B. The largest prime number less than 1010 is 1009, and 2 x 1009 = 2018. Therefore, A = B.
The extra numbers of the first set don't put in any extra factors to the LCM. For any number n, there is at least one multiple of n every n numbers. There are 1009 numbers from 1010 to 2018, enough for at least one multiple of each number from 1 to 1009.
Quick Python solution
from functools import reduce
from fractions import gcd
lcm = lambda a, b: a * b // gcd(a, b)
A = reduce(lcm, range(1, 2019))
B = reduce(lcm, range(1010, 2019))
print(A > B)
print(B > A)
print(A == B)
Very annoying.... fyi lcm = Least Common Multiple.
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What I'm going to show here is that lcm ( 1 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) = lcm ( 1 0 1 0 , … , 2 0 1 8 ) because the numbers { 1 , … , 1 0 0 9 } don't contribute any factors to the LCM.
Consider the sets C = { 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 1 0 0 9 } and D = { 1 0 1 0 , 1 0 1 1 , 1 0 1 2 , … , 2 0 1 8 } .
Claim : Every integer in set C divides some integer in set D .
Proof : Partition set C as follows:
E F = { 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 5 0 4 } = { 5 0 5 , 5 0 6 , 5 0 7 , … , 1 0 0 9 }
Note that every element in set F is exactly 2 1 of some element in set D . Now partition set E as follows:
G H = { 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 2 5 2 } = { 2 5 3 , 2 5 4 , 2 5 5 , … , 5 0 4 }
Note that every element in set H is exactly 4 1 of some element in set D .
We can continue partitioning the sets as above indefinitely. However, since there exists a smallest positive integer, 1 , we will eventually have to stop. At that point, we will have established that every integer in set C divides some integer in set D . It then follows that the least common multiples given in the problem are equal.