How many people must we have, in order for the probability that at least 1 person was born in a leap year to be greater than 5 0 % ?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
For the sake of precision, there are 366 days in a leap year and 365 days in a non-leap year. So, the probability that a person is born in a leap year is 3 6 6 + 3 ( 3 6 5 ) 3 6 6 considering a 4-year cycle, which is approximately 25.051%.
So the probability that a person is not born in a leap year is about 100% - 25.051% =74.949%. Let n be the number of people (we are considering). P(at least 1 person is born in a leap year) = 1 - P(no one was born in a leap year) = 1 − ( 0 . 7 4 9 4 9 ) n .
Thus, 1 − ( 0 . 7 4 9 4 9 ) n > 0 . 5 Solving, the least integer value of n is 3.
Yay to accounting for the slightly different number of days :)
If you want to be even more precise, every year that is divisible by 100 isn't a leap year. But every year that's divisible by 400 is a leap year anyway. So out of every 400 years, 97 are leap years.
Think of it as a 4 sided die with numbers 1,2,3,4 and 1 person =1 roll.
The probability of getting a 1 is the same as getting a leap year. After rolling, there is a 1/4 probability of getting a 1, after 2 rolls your chances are 50%.
Note that the question asks for >50%, not ≥ 5 0 %
Therefore we must have 3 rolls to have more more than a 50℅ chance.
Your solution is incorrect. The probability that after 2 rolls, there is no 1, is 1 − ( 4 3 ) 2 = 1 6 7 . See @Vighnesh Raut 's solution.
Log in to reply
Kevin: because of the weirdness of the Gregorian calendar, I think it's better to assume that the all the years that are divisible by 1 0 0 must be a leap year. So the calculation for probability of a leap year is simpler: 4 1 instead of 4 0 0 9 7
Log in to reply
Technically, the odds are slightly higher than 97/400. True, since every year ending in 00 that is not divisible by 400 is not a leap year, that means out of every 400 years, instead of 100 leap years there are only 97. But then the odds of one person's having been born in a leap year are (97 * 366) / (303 * 365).
Log in to reply
@Joshua Englehart – Good eye! Thanks for being thorough!
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
We know that out of 4 years , 1 is a leap year. So, probability of one person to be born in a leap year is 4 1 and probability of not to be born in a leap year is 4 3 .
So, if there is one person, probability of him to be born in leap year is 4 1 x 100% = 25%
If there are two person, probability of both not to be born in leap year is
4 3 × 4 3 = 1 6 9 × 1 0 0 %=56.25% . So, probability of at least one of them to be born in a leap year is (100-56.25)%=43.75% .
Similarly , if there are three person, probability of all the three not to be born in leap year is 4 3 × 4 3 × 4 3 = 6 4 2 7 × 1 0 0 %=42.19% . So, probability of at least one to be born in a leap year is (100-42.19)%=57.81% which is greater than 50% . Hence, we must have at least 3 people to ensure that probability of at least one of them to be born in a leap year is greater than 50% .