Leap Year gets no love

How many people must we have, in order for the probability that at least 1 person was born in a leap year to be greater than 50 % 50 \% ?

2 3 4 5

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3 solutions

Vighnesh Raut
Jan 28, 2015

We know that out of 4 years , 1 is a leap year. So, probability of one person to be born in a leap year is 1 4 \frac { 1 }{ 4 } and probability of not to be born in a leap year is 3 4 \frac { 3 }{ 4 } .

So, if there is one person, probability of him to be born in leap year is 1 4 \frac { 1 }{ 4 } x 100% = 25%

If there are two person, probability of both not to be born in leap year is

3 4 × 3 4 = 9 16 × 100 \frac { 3 }{ 4 } \times \frac { 3 }{ 4 } =\frac { 9 }{ 16 } \times 100 %=56.25% . So, probability of at least one of them to be born in a leap year is (100-56.25)%=43.75% .

Similarly , if there are three person, probability of all the three not to be born in leap year is 3 4 × 3 4 × 3 4 = 27 64 × 100 \frac { 3 }{ 4 } \times \frac { 3 }{ 4 } \times \frac { 3 }{ 4 } =\frac { 27 }{ 64 } \times 100 %=42.19% . So, probability of at least one to be born in a leap year is (100-42.19)%=57.81% which is greater than 50% . Hence, we must have at least 3 people to ensure that probability of at least one of them to be born in a leap year is greater than 50% .

Jester Koh
Dec 30, 2016

For the sake of precision, there are 366 days in a leap year and 365 days in a non-leap year. So, the probability that a person is born in a leap year is 366 366 + 3 ( 365 ) \frac{366}{366+3(365)} considering a 4-year cycle, which is approximately 25.051%.

So the probability that a person is not born in a leap year is about 100% - 25.051% =74.949%. Let n n be the number of people (we are considering). P(at least 1 person is born in a leap year) = 1 - P(no one was born in a leap year) = 1 ( 0.74949 ) n =1-(0.74949)^n .

Thus, 1 ( 0.74949 ) n > 0.5 1-(0.74949)^n> 0.5 Solving, the least integer value of n is 3.

Yay to accounting for the slightly different number of days :)

Chung Kevin - 4 years, 5 months ago

If you want to be even more precise, every year that is divisible by 100 isn't a leap year. But every year that's divisible by 400 is a leap year anyway. So out of every 400 years, 97 are leap years.

Stefan van der Waal - 3 years, 5 months ago
Trevor Arashiro
Jan 27, 2015

Think of it as a 4 sided die with numbers 1,2,3,4 and 1 person =1 roll.

The probability of getting a 1 is the same as getting a leap year. After rolling, there is a 1/4 probability of getting a 1, after 2 rolls your chances are 50%.

Note that the question asks for >50%, not 50 % \geq 50\%

Therefore we must have 3 rolls to have more more than a 50℅ chance.

Your solution is incorrect. The probability that after 2 rolls, there is no 1, is 1 ( 3 4 ) 2 = 7 16 1 - \left ( \frac{3}{4} \right) ^2 = \frac{7}{16} . See @Vighnesh Raut 's solution.

Chung Kevin - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Kevin: because of the weirdness of the Gregorian calendar, I think it's better to assume that the all the years that are divisible by 100 100 must be a leap year. So the calculation for probability of a leap year is simpler: 1 4 \frac 1 4 instead of 97 400 \frac {97}{400}

Pi Han Goh - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Technically, the odds are slightly higher than 97/400. True, since every year ending in 00 that is not divisible by 400 is not a leap year, that means out of every 400 years, instead of 100 leap years there are only 97. But then the odds of one person's having been born in a leap year are (97 * 366) / (303 * 365).

Joshua Englehart - 3 years, 9 months ago

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@Joshua Englehart Good eye! Thanks for being thorough!

Pi Han Goh - 3 years, 9 months ago

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