∫ 0 x 2 ( 1 + t ) f ( t ) d t = 6 x 4
Find a real valued function f defined and continuous for x ≥ 0 such that the equation above is true. Submit your answer as the value of f ( 1 ) .
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Who came up with this silly name "Newton Leibniz Rule"?... it's the Leibniz (Integral) Rule.
Also, what you are using here isn't the Leibniz Rule, which concerns functions of two variables, but the second fundamental theorem of calculus .
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Thankyou sir, Edited
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Oh no, this is getting even worse... no wonder our calculus students are getting confused. This certainly is no axiom, but a theorem that is not that hard to prove.
Thank you for letting me know, though, in case my students ever bring this up.
Assuming the fundamental theorem of Calculus and, that two differentiable functions in (a, b) such that they have the same derivative differ by a constant. With this in mind, the functions of both members of the equality vanish at x = 0. Then, It is sufficient to match the derivatives ( 1 + x 2 )f( x 2 )2x = 24 x 3 . (Now, x ≥ 0 ) ⇒ f(x)= 12x / (1 + x) ⇒ f(1) = 6
It is very simple to show that ∫ 0 x 2 1 2 t d t = 6 x 4 comparing it with the question , we can find f(t), f ( t ) = 1 + t 1 2 t Hence f ( 1 ) = 6
For completeness, you should state that for integrals of continuous functions, if ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b g ( x ) d x , for all values a , b in some interval [ A , B ] , then for all points c in [ A , B ] , we have f ( c ) = g ( c ) .
This seems obvious, so how do we go about proving it?
I think you were lucky. I don't agree with this solution. Two different functions can have the same definite integrals and they can be different. Yoy only have to think in two functions that differs in a constant.
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Of course, it is an informed guess based on experience. And that is a way to solve mathematics. This is a solution which satisfies the description in the question and luck (chance or probability) has nothing to do with it.
If it does, show me where I am wrong.
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I think you are not wrong in this question, but I think if you apply this "method" next time, probably you'll be wrong. You have reason about the question.. the question is to find a function and this funtion fullfields it, but I don't like the form how you have solved, it's all.
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@Guillermo Templado – My method is plainly "find an answer which satisfies the question". So there is a possibility that it won't work. But it will never go wrong. As you pointed out, many don't like it (sometimes even me!).
Historically, this method has done so much good to humanity that it cannot be ignored.
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@Harish Sasikumar – jaja,ok, I don't want to argue.
So we're given the following equation.
∫ 0 x 2 ( 1 + t ) f ( t ) d t = 6 x 4
Since t = x 2 we can rewrite this in terms of t as follows.
∫ 0 t ( 1 + t ) f ( t ) d t = 6 t 2
Then we can take the derivative of f with respect to t on both sides
d t d f ∫ 0 t ( 1 + t ) f ( t ) d t = d t d f 6 t 2
⟹ ( 1 + t ) f ( t ) = 1 2 t
⟹ f ( t ) = 1 + t 1 2 t
⟹ f ( 1 ) = 2 1 2 = 6
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⇒ ∫ 0 x 2 ( 1 + t ) f ( t ) dt = 6 x 4
Applying Second fundamental theorem of calculus ,
⇒ ( 1 + x 2 ) f ( x 2 ) ( 2 x ) = 2 4 x 3
⇒ f ( x 2 ) = 1 + x 2 1 2 x 2
Substituting x 2 = 1
⇒ f ( 1 ) = 6