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Calculus Level 3

lim n n ! ! n \large \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{n!}{!n}

The limit above has a closed form. Find this closed form.

Give your answer to 3 decimal places.

Notations :

  • ! ! denotes the factorial notation. For example, 8 ! = 1 × 2 × 3 × × 8 8! = 1\times2\times3\times\cdots\times8 .

  • ! n !n denotes the number of derangements for n n different objects, ! n = n ! r = 0 n ( 1 ) r r ! \displaystyle !n = n! \sum_{r=0}^n \dfrac{(-1)^r}{r!} .


The answer is 2.718.

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3 solutions

Rishabh Jain
May 3, 2016

! n = n ! ( 1 2 ! 1 3 ! + 1 4 ! + + ( 1 ) n 1 n ! ) \small{\bullet~!n=n!\left(\dfrac{1}{2!}-\dfrac{1}{3!}+\dfrac{1}{4!}+\cdots +(-1)^n\dfrac{1}{n!}\right)} \bullet~ And also note( by putting x = 1 x=-1 in expansion of e x e^x ):- ( e 1 = 1 1 + 1 2 ! 1 3 ! + 1 4 ! + ) (\small{\color{#3D99F6}{e^{-1}=1-1+\dfrac{1}{2!}-\dfrac{1}{3!}+\dfrac{1}{4!}+\cdots}})


The limit is therefore:-

lim n n ! n ! ( 1 2 ! 1 3 ! + 1 4 ! + + ( 1 ) n 1 n ! ) \displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{\cancel{n!}}{\cancel{n!}\small{\left(\color{#3D99F6}{\dfrac{1}{2!}-\dfrac{1}{3!}+\dfrac{1}{4!}+\cdots +(-1)^n\dfrac{1}{n!}}\right)}} = 1 e 1 = e 2.718 \Large =\dfrac{1}{e^{-1}}=e\approx\boxed{2.718}

Very nice!

Geoff Pilling - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Thanks.... ¨ \ddot\smile

Rishabh Jain - 5 years, 1 month ago
Abhay Tiwari
May 3, 2016

for n > 1 n>1 the ! n !n can be written as ! n = [ n ! + 1 e ] !n=[\frac{n!+1}{e}] , where [ ] [] denotes the greatest integer (floor function), but since we are dealing with n which tends to infinity, so we will approach without the floor function.

lim n n ! n ! + 1 e \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{n!}{\frac{n!+1}{e}}

lim n 1 1 + 1 n ! e \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{1}{\dfrac{1+\dfrac{1}{n!}}{e}}

1 1 + 0 e = e = 2.718 \dfrac{1}{\frac{1+0}{e}}=\boxed{e}=\boxed{2.718}

This is incorrect, when n = 2 n = 2 , ! n = 1 !n = 1 and n ! + 1 e = 2 e 0.7358 \dfrac{n!+1}e = \dfrac2e \approx 0.7358 .

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Pi Han Goh :), if n=2, then ! n = [ 2 + 1 e ] = 1 !n=[\frac{2+1}{e}]=1 , actually it comes with a greatest integer(floor function[]) which I did not mention there as n was tending to infinity.

Abhay Tiwari - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Then you should write that in your solution, otherwise people might think that ! n = n ! + 1 e !n = \dfrac{n!+1}e holds true for all integers n > 1 n>1 .

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Pi Han Goh Edited! Thanks a lot.

Abhay Tiwari - 5 years, 1 month ago

Elegant! :)

Geoff Pilling - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Oh! Thanks a lot. BTW, I loved solving your platonic solid problems :)

Abhay Tiwari - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Haha... Thanks... Did you get them all? :)

Geoff Pilling - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Geoff Pilling Nah, two of them still remains =(, rest I have done

Abhay Tiwari - 5 years, 1 month ago

@Geoff Pilling For the inspiration you gave me!!. Click here

Abhay Tiwari - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Abhay Tiwari Ah, nice problem! :)

Geoff Pilling - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Geoff Pilling Thank you :), but they have not rated it yet, I don't know why

Abhay Tiwari - 5 years, 1 month ago
Geoff Pilling
May 3, 2016

The answer is the infamous Euler's constant, e = 2.7182818... \boxed{e = 2.7182818...} , (Did you recognize the picture?) ...and the proof is left as an exercise to the reader! :^)

E u l e r Euler ....... Very nice problem indeed. .. :-)

Rishabh Jain - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Thanks... Hope you enjoyed it! By the way, I fixed up the deranged one... Good call!

Geoff Pilling - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Great.... Thanks..

Rishabh Jain - 5 years, 1 month ago

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